Freethought & Rationalism Archive

jjramsey · 02-03-2006, 04:46 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Amaleq13

On a semi-related note, do you think it unlikely that any messianic claimants/rebels would have deliberately taken on the name "Joshua" for the Scriptural significance?

I don't think that it's necessarily unlikely, but judging from the stories of the rebels in Josephus, such as Judas the Galilean, Theudas, etc., it does not appear that the various possible claimants bothered to do so.

knotted paragon · 02-03-2006, 05:19 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Chris Weimer

By whom? Paul? The gospellers? The earliest Christians?

Sorry to interject here. Gerd Ludemann makes no bones about Paul's deliberate misquotes from OT Lord - as in Lord of Hosts. He also arbitrarily assigns "God" or "Christ" as well.

Lord - 1 Cor. 1:31; but cf. Jer. 9:23-24
assigned to God - Rom. 11:34 from Isa. 40:13
assigned to Christ - 1 Cor. 2:16 from above Isa. 40:13

(from Paul, the Founder of Christianity)

Amaleq13 · 02-03-2006, 08:13 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Chris Weimer

By whom? Paul? The gospellers? The earliest Christians?

Whomever authored the "hymn" though, assuming Paul is repeating it, I supposed he may have had a different interpretation.

andrewcriddle · 02-06-2006, 11:00 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by jjramsey

It says that God "gave him the name that is above every name." It does not quite follow that the name in question is "Jesus," although that is one possibility, but the text is ambiguous here. "Lord" perhaps might be what Paul had in mind, especially since "Jesus" was a common name, while "Lord" is obviously grander. It's hard to tell. Also, if he only got the name "Jesus" after his resurrection, that would suggest either that he was nameless while taking human likeness (!) or that he had another name which is nowhere mentioned in the NT, unless you want to count "Immanuel," but I think we're all agreed that particular name is a late development. I think you are hinging way too much on an unclear verse.

IMHO there are enough references in Ancient Jewish and Christian writings to figures bearing mystical divine names (Metatron in Jewish writings for Christian writings see eg Revelation 19:11-16) for me to suspect that something similar underlies the passage in Philippians.

Andre Criddle

Thread Tools	Search this Thread
Show Printable Version	Search this Thread: Advanced Search

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.