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11-09-2005, 07:32 PM | #61 | |
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Regards, An atheist who believes that we can, with some confidence, say Jesus said something. Rick Sumner |
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11-09-2005, 07:35 PM | #62 | |
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11-09-2005, 09:30 PM | #63 | |
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11-09-2005, 11:05 PM | #64 |
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Try this.
Once upon a time Christian scholars asserted that Luke was a doctor. My wife's RSV has a "helpful" section at the back which describes the author of the gospel as such. Much was made about the "medical" words to be found in the text of the gospel. Scholars made lists of such words and analysed their possible origins and so on. Now all of that was in the context of an assumption that patristic legend was authentic and that Luke was a valid transmitter of tradition going back to the days of Paul and even further. It fitted into, was reinforced by and was in turn a reinforcment of the conventional orthodox picture of the origins of Christianity of the time. Then along came Cadbury who apparently demolished this neat little scene. So that no longer is it common to defend the assertion that Luke "the beloved physician" was the author of that gospel by pointing to the presence of medical words. This was unfortunate for the orthodox representation of "who wrote the gospels?' because a prop had been knocked out of their defense. It had ramifications for the credibility of the gospel as a source because the author was relegated to anon. status from a previously prestigious one and hurt the credibility of tradition that assigned the gospel to a doctor named Luke. A similar story can be told about the "we' sections in Acts and the literary device of travel narration...not so clear cut a story but the parallel is there. Now I would submit that once upon a time Luke as the doctor who had medical words in his gospel was a sub-paradgm or element of the paradigm that was the standard Christian story that explained the origins of the gospel[s]. That element is now rarely asserted. When it is I would suggest to you that it is apologetic in nature, ie it defends the validity of the old tradition. The paradigm has altered. I see the hypothesis of Q operating in a similar matter but still in the stage where it is the dominant paradigm yet to be demolished if it will be. It serves, as I have said before, to validate the standard story that there is a continuous line of oral and written tradition BACK from all 3 gospels to JC himself...as Mack for eg. states. Doherty for eg could could write lots about the silence of 1C authors [pre-the gospels version] and a response to him could be "but we have a written account of the words of JC BEFORE the gospels...it's called Q unfortunately it was lost" Funk may be sceptical of scholars and the origins of the stories in the gospels and how they were written but he still claims that Q can take us back to an HJ. That is his bottom line...Q connects JC to the gospels...whatever doctrines Funk did or did not hold are irrelevant, he can have SOME of the JC from the gospels because Q is the link. No Q, no link [except oral trad of course]. Thus Q is an important element in the assertion [or defense] of the Christian belief that the words of JC can be ,at least partly, gleaned from the gospels. Is that so controversial? J.Drury "Tradition and Design in Luke's Gospel'' RE 2DH..."no doubt owing to the fact that it tends to support rather than detract from the historical validity of the gospel narrative. It is the DESIRE [my emphasis] for historical validity that holds the 2 documents together" p.40 [paraphrase]... the historicity of the mass of teaching common to Mt. and L comes under an ominous question mark. " Q, with which priority of Mark has the HAPPY [my emphasis] result of attributing a high degree of probability to all 3 synoptics" p.120 see you yalla |
11-10-2005, 06:26 AM | #65 |
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Q and Apologetics
The discussion of Q and apologetics is interesting but needs more nuance. Q has been around for more than 150 years and in part derives its staying power to its ability to satisfy both traditionalists and non-traditionalists in different respects.
Non-traditionalists (e.g. 19th cen. German liberal Protestants, today's Jesus Seminar) like Q because it presents a portrait of Jesus that is not tethered to the views of Jesus in the canonical gospels, all of which culminate in his passion and crucifixion. Thus, Q allows the non-traditionalist scholar to consider a Jesus that is not closely tied to a Pauline dying and resurrected savior. Q is liberating to this camp. Q also appeals to the traditionalist camp because it promises to preserve authentic Jesus material that is older than any of the canonical gospels. Thus, any modern criticism on how late Mark, Matthew, Luke, and John are can be neutralized by an even earlier source. Indeed, W. R. Farmer has documented the apologetical value of Q within 19th century German scholarship. The hypothetical nature of Q is convenient because its text cannot be known to anywhere within the same degree of precision, so Q's malleability makes it a harder target for strong criticism. Granted, Q is not a perfect fit for either camp. Some traditionalists are uncomfortable with the fact that Q is not part of the canon, and some non-traditionalists see Q as an overly flexible technique to backdate certain Jesus traditions. But, in the end, Q promises something for everyone, which is what explains its staying power among both traditionalists and non-traditionalists. The relevance for this thread is that just because Q happens to be useful for some apologists, that does not mean that this usefulness is the only reason why Q enjoys its support. Non-traditionalists find Q useful too. Stephen |
11-10-2005, 06:49 AM | #66 | |||
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A few weeks ago I was a firm believer in the standard 2SH hypothesis. Having since read Sanders and Davies Stydying the Synoptic Gospels, Mack's The Lost Gospel and gone back over some of Robert Price's work on cynic sayings I now find myself in a position where I am thoroughly confused and not quite sure what to think. I suspect that that is the correct, and more reasonable, place to be. I still think that my view on this matter is different from GH in the sense that, assuming Markan priority, Mark was written in an age of no (or simple) gospels. Matthew and Luke appear on the stage when gospel material was far better known and in circulation. Their environments were different. People didn't really know gospels in the Markan day as they did when Matthew and Luke penned theirs. Naturally, they would have been far more restricted in what they could write given the expectations. Anyways, to summarize, I am here to learn and being told why I am wrong or why my argument is incomplete and, indeed, how it could be improved, is exactly why I am here making these posts, so in this case I thank you for your response as it has provided me with more knowledge. Quote:
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11-10-2005, 06:55 AM | #67 | |
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11-10-2005, 06:55 AM | #68 | |
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Is Mark colloquial? Or is it just bad? Wouldn't vocabulary be the most important factor in colloquialism? He also has grammar problems. Did they reflect colloquial usage or was Mark just wrong? xxxx και xxx και xxx και xxx doesn't sound colloquial to me, it just sounds bad. However, I have not read all of Mark in Greek since I am not quite good enough for that yet. I will have more comment upon this topic a year from now or so. Julian |
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11-10-2005, 07:18 AM | #69 | |
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11-10-2005, 11:21 AM | #70 | |||
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