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			The reference for the preceding quotation from Paul is 1Thess. 4:15.
		 
		
		
		
		
		
		
		
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		#42 | |
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 OK, that is a possibility, but "by the word of the Lord" usually denotes a prophetic utternace, presumably gained from God in heaven. For example, "For a command came to me by the word of the LORD ..." 1 Kings 13:17. "Now a certain man of the sons of the prophets said to another by the word of the LORD..." 1 Kings 20:35. "For this we say to you by the word of the Lord, ..." 1 Thessalonians 4:15. Since the command has no context, and the formula reflects the OT word of God to the prophets, it is likely here that we have a personal revelation from Christ in heaven. Jake Jones IV  | 
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		#43 | 
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			I've read this before, but now I can't find it. When approximately do we have evidence for the letters of Paul, i.e. when do they become known to out history?
		 
		
		
		
		
		
		
		
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		#44 | |
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			 Quote: 
	
 Jeffrey Gibson  | 
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		#45 | |
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 1. 1 Clement cites 1 Corinthians as a Pauline epistle by name.Ben.  | 
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		#46 | |||
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		#47 | |
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			Here is another major problem passage: 
		
		
		
		
		
		
		
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		#48 | |
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 Here is an old thread by a deconverted ex-Christian who still wanted to show the existence of a historical Jesus: 1 Thessalonians 2:14-16 is an Interpolation (unfortunately, his website seems to have disappeared, but you can read the other arguments.)  | 
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		#49 | |
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 Remember the alchemic, transmutation themes in the eucharist - wine into blood, bread into flesh. Paul's christ is a heavenly one, being sacrificed. Us humans reenact - do this in remembrance of me - this in typical magical thinking ritualistic ways. And I do wonder if there has been a switch in the meaning of the word Christ that has been missed. The Judaic rituals included annointing - we have had huge discussions about if cannabis was used in the holy oil. There would have been specialist priests who made the oil - might they have been called christs? Magic, alchemy, ritual, drugs - a very heady mixture!  | 
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