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Old 06-29-2006, 11:25 PM   #161
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Originally Posted by jgibson000
The question is how do you know which ones do and do not?.
By giving them all the benefit of doubt. If a writer says he has studied Greek, I assume he has in fact studied it unless I find evidence that he is lying.
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Old 06-30-2006, 12:16 AM   #162
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Originally Posted by Ben C Smith
I presume by your expression Marcion/Paul that you think Paul and Marcion were the same person. Why then did the church habilitate Paul and not Marcion? That seems like rehabilitating Silas but not Silvanus, Peter but not Simon, Jacob but not Israel.

Ben.
I did not mean to imply that Marcion was Paul, however, it is possible that the writings attributed to Paul were originally written by someone associated with Marcion. I guess we need to prove that an actual Paul did or did not exist.

Paul seems to have carried some weight in legendary circles in the second century. The church may have needed "Pauline" theology, because pull this theology from the NT and maybe you are only left with Judaism plus one.
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Old 06-30-2006, 02:52 AM   #163
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Originally Posted by Ben C Smith
Andrew Criddle has given a list of readings from J. J. Clabeaux that on text-critical terms probably precede Marcion.

Let us make certain we understand the meaning of this. Marcion flourished in the first half of century II. If his Paul was the original Paul, then he ought to be a superb witness for originality. If his Paul was an altered Paul, then he is just another witness to the text.

So, if we find secondary readings in Marcion, it stands to reason that the second scenario is the true one: Marcion is just another witness to the text.

But, if he is just another witness to the text, then the Marcionite variants in places such as Galatians 4.4 are almost certainly spurious, since in such places it is Marcion against the world.

Think about that for a moment. The Alexandrian, the western, the Byzantine, the so-called Caesarean texts, the various translations (Latin, Coptic, Syriac, Armenian, Slavonic, Ethiopic), from all parts of Christendom both inside and outside the empire... they all (to my knowledge) have made [or born] of a woman, made under the law. Marcion alone omits the phrase, and Marcion had extreme motive to excise it. If that is not suspicious, I do not know what is.

I do not mean in any way to imply that Marcion never carries the original reading of Paul. I am sure he sometimes or even often does. But where he does he is assuredly supported by other manuscripts. Where Marcion stands alone against them all, or even against most, or certainly against the earliest and best from all text families, he is not to be trusted.

A caveat, however, as you run through that list Andrew gave; as with all text criticism, the work has to be done in the original language.

Ben.
Ben, who, before Marcion, do you site as a credible witness to the letters written by "Paul"?

How many copies of Marcion's version of the letters would you estimate were extant prior to 150AD?
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Old 06-30-2006, 03:01 AM   #164
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Dr. Gibson, how many people, would you say, were Christians prior to 150AD?

Regarding the Rove analogy, I was thinking of the use of the "Swift Boat" attacks against Kerry in 2004 and the amount of distortion of Kerry's record that were taken as gospel (pun intended) by a certain segment of the US population. I could go on, but this is not a political board.

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They even had the audacity to use the heretic's prologues.

Umm .. which ones are they?
The prologues that are still extent in the most manuscripts of the Latin Vulgate.

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Even so, and even assuming that this occured, you are assuming that these changes would have been known early and quickly outside of Rome, let alone that they were ever actually communicated beyond the Roman diocese. But didn't you claim above that rapid dissemination couldn't have happened and that even if it did, no one would have been able to know that the texts were changed given that people could not read?
Who witnesses to the Epistles after Marcion but prior to Ireneaus in about 180AD? Though Justin Martyr alludes to some "Paulian" theology, nowhere, to the best of my knowledge, does he appeal to the Pauline Epistles themselves. 30+ years does not seem to be a quick dissemination.

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But given how we can see that these people reported accurately in their polemics both against other "heretics" and against against the pagan philosophers they diagreed with, what these heretics and philosopers wrote, we have little cause to think that they distorted anything of Marcion's.
Unless the church needed parts of his theology, for some reason. Which it seems that they did. The church may have wanted to establish it's priority on the basis of something ancient, like the Hebrew writings. This basis would obviously lend to support its self-declared authority. Marcion, for this reason, needed to be dealt with, by the church, in the way that he was.

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Against no original copies. But against witnesses to those copies that given their age and their geographical origin and distribution, their transmission history in the versional witnesses, and the shape and wording of how they are quoted by the fathers and in diverse lectionaries, have a good claim to be trusted. Which originals do you judge your ideas of the correct wording and integrity of your idea of the text -- or either the writings of Marcion or the books of the NT -- against?
But aren't you also assuming intentions? I merely point out that, as far as I can tell, Marcion is the first to bring the Paul of the Epistles into the church. Am I incorrect in this view?
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Old 06-30-2006, 03:38 AM   #165
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Originally Posted by jgibson000
Many thanks for saying this! I'm very pleased to see especially in in the light of our sometimes piqued tone with one another, that we actually agree on something and that you are both willing and gracious enought to let me know it.
Um, actually, "gracious" is my middle name .
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Originally Posted by jgibson000
But may I now ask not only what it was that caused the change of mind, ...
I reviewed it. I wanted to ask you exactly what was ambiguous and when I reread your old explanation, it was already there.
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Originally Posted by jgibson000
...but what your agreement with me means in terms of what you think of Earl's reading of Burton and his [Earl's] interpretation of what GENOMENON EK GUNAIKOS means?
It means that I think Earl was in error. And you were right. It does not mean the JM hypothesis is any weaker. It doesnt reduce my respect for Earl in any way. Even Price, Crossan, Meier and several other scholars have been in error in some clear instances but where they are not in error, we value their contributions. It doesnt make them charlatans and it does not make those of us who point out their errors any better than them. I am yet to see a defect-free work. Even Raymond Brown's work has errors so...

It also means I was not reading you carefully and I therefore need to be more vigilant in future especially when I am in the middle of a discussion.
It also means your Greek is not that bad after all . It also means that the sooner I get through with the CD of Mounce's Greek For The Rest of Us, and other Greek books, the better.
Thanks anyway for your valiant efforts to explain Burton's meaning. For whatever its worth, I got it.

To Ben: those are good examples illustrating the use of gennaw and related phrases. Now, which ones among the examples you have given meet the following requirements:

(1) The author was familiar with, and probably adopted the cosmology of middle platonism.

(2) The character in question was regarded as a god.

(3) There are various theories/understandings about the nature of the character referred to as born of woman (for Jesus, we have adoptionist Christology, Ebionism, Gnosticism, Marcionite Christ, A Historical Jesus etc).

If you have no character that meets the above criteria, you havent illustrated anything IMHO.
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Old 06-30-2006, 06:30 AM   #166
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Originally Posted by dog-on
I guess we need to prove that an actual Paul did or did not exist.
1. Ignatius references him. If you think the Ignatian corpus as a whole is a late forgery, then....

2. Clement references him and his first letter to the Corinthians in 1 Clement. And I am confident that 1 Clement dates to century I.

3. The internal evidence from at least some of the letters indicates that they were written before 70 (1 Corinthians 10.18; 2 Thessalonians 2.4), but after the accession of Augustus (Philippians 4.22; and there is another argument from the Corinthians letters).

4. The book of Acts describes Paul as active in about the same timeframe as the internal evidence from the epistles indicates.

5. Whoever wrote 1 Corinthians 15 and Galatians 1-2 was a contemporary of James the just. James can be placed in the middle of century I by a mass of evidence from Josephus, Hegesippus, the epistle of Jude, the epistle of James, the gospel according to the Hebrews, the gospel of Thomas, the canonical gospels (indirectly), and certain works from century II which invoke his name.

I can support all of the above (and there are more arguments to be made at that), but do not wish to do so at this time, on this thread. If your argument on this thread depends on either the nonexistence of Paul or the identity of Paul with Marcion in century II, then our debate will have to go back about three steps and wait for another time; I am too busy with other matters (including some relating to the matter of born of a woman) to go into the authentication of Paul right now. My apologies.

Ben.
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Old 06-30-2006, 06:40 AM   #167
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Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
To Ben: those are good examples illustrating the use of gennaw and related phrases. Now, which ones among the examples you have given meet the following requirements:

(1) The author was familiar with, and probably adopted the cosmology of middle platonism.

(2) The character in question was regarded as a god.

(3) There are various theories/understandings about the nature of the character referred to as born of woman (for Jesus, we have adoptionist Christology, Ebionism, Gnosticism, Marcionite Christ, A Historical Jesus etc).

If you have no character that meets the above criteria, you havent illustrated anything IMHO.
That post was not meant to illustrate anything yet. It was just a list of raw data.

As for your list of criteria, #1 is not relevant until it is demonstrated that Paul rejected Jewish cosmology and embraced middle Platonic cosmology; and then the meaning of that phrase for a middle Platonist has to be assessed. If it turns out that middle Platonists do not use that phrase, then it stands to reason that Paul was not pointing to a middle Platonist concept when he used it. #2 is relevant, but does nothing to demonstrate the meaning of born of a woman; we cannot get at what an author was thinking until we pin down what he meant when he wrote what he wrote. Furthermore, we know that Christianity ended up with a doctrine which taught that Jesus was both human and divine; the question here is whether Paul thought that Jesus was both human and divine. And is the phrase born of a woman one that points to his humanity or to his divinity? #3 mixes groups for whom that phrase is anathema (Marcionites, gnostics) with groups for whom that phrase would be either acceptable or even welcome (adoptionists, Ebionites). I therefore do not understand what is at stake in #3.

Ben.
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Old 06-30-2006, 06:43 AM   #168
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Ben, I appreciate your response and will study what you have advanced as evidence regarding pre-Marcion attestation to the Epistles as well as the historical Paul.

1. I think that there are good reasons to believe the Ignatious letters as possible forgery.

2. Clement, I am undecided.

3. I'll see where you are going with this.

4. Acts, I believe is part of the churches response to Marcion, but I will study it again.

5. I believe these references in Paul to be later interpolations.

My position on this thread is that Gal. 4:4 is an interpolation, regardless of whether or not Paul was the actual writer of the epistles.
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Old 06-30-2006, 06:48 AM   #169
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Originally Posted by dog-on
5. I believe these references in Paul to be later interpolations.
Am I reading you right? You regard at least 1 Corinthians 15.3-9; Galatians 1.19; 2.9, 12 as interpolations? Every reference to James in Paul? Maybe even 1 Corinthians 9.5?

I do not want to debate it here, but I find such a position to be very curious, and do not recall ever having seen it before.

Ben.
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Old 06-30-2006, 06:57 AM   #170
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Originally Posted by jgibson000
Let me answer you by saying why I can't take Earl's case for an MJ seriously. Among other things, there is how he has misconstred, misread, and cooked the evidence from the Ascension of Isaiah that he appeals to support the idea of a crucifixion in a heavenly realm, how tenditiously he has read 1 Cor. 2:6-8 and his "proof texts" in Hebrews, and how idiosyncratic and unsupportable his claims about the beliefs and worldviews of Middle Platonism are.
And there is also, of course, the torturous exegesis that he has engagaed in of the phrases above which seem to have no other grounds for being regarded as interpolations (the last argument of the desperate, I think) other than a committemnt to the MJ as an apriori.
Jeffrey Gibson

JW:
Again Glibson, isn't Christianity Guilty of everything you accuse Mr. Doherty of:

"misconstred, misread, and cooked the evidence from ...tenditiously..."proof texts" in Hebrews, and how idiosyncratic and unsupportable...torturous exegesis...engagaed in...which seem to have no other grounds...other than a committemnt to...an apriori."

concerning the Hebrew Bible with the main difference being Mr. Doherty has never murdered anyone publicly trying to embarass him (yet)?


Quote:
Originally Posted by Gibson
Why shouldn't I take their word?. These are independent witnesses are they not. And even if they do have vested intersts, aren't you assuming that that those with vested interests never speak the truth when they argue for them?. Moreover, why would those who wished to convince others of the truth of their case about someone resort to lying about or misrepresenting what that person said or did? Wouldn't they be running run the risk of destroying their case and their credibilty since not only those who were opposed what they were writing, but anyone who knew the truth, could do so by simply by pointing to the fact that what was said wasn't true?

JW:
Is English not your first language? Maybe your Greek is as good as you think it is.

I've never seen a Professor act like you do. What is your Position and where is it?



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