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Old 07-10-2008, 01:06 PM   #71
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STC wrote:

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In this case, up to perhaps 6 or 7.
(referring to the number of decades spanning between events he'd consider "contemporaneous".)

I must also question that. I mean, that says that my neice is contemporaneous with Mark Twain. Wow, maybe Shania Twain, but come on...

It sounds like some Christians are willing to change the definitions of words if doing so allows them to wriggle out of a misstatement.

STC, maybe a short list of the documents you are referring to, along with the dates. I'll make it easy for you by starting:

50- 65 CE Paul (close to being contemporaneous, says almost nothing about Jesus' life)
70-110 CE Gospels (based on retold stories, not contemporaneous)
94 CE Josephus (TF added later, even if true, not contemporaneous)
~115 Pliny, Tacitus (not contemporaneous, only shows that Christians existed, not Jesus himself)
2nd Cent Lucian (not contemporaneous)

Let's try to get some earlier ones, so we can get up to "myriad".

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Old 07-10-2008, 01:07 PM   #72
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Incorrect:

1. Jesus was a Jew.

2. Jesus is presented as the Messiah (Christ) to the Jews.

3. Christianity was originally just a Jewish sect.

4. Jew can denote ethnicity and/or religion, Christianity just religion

5. Most early Christians were ethnic Jews.

6. A Jew who accepts Jesus as the Messiah does not cease to be an ethnic Jew, and could remain a cultural Jew (language, traditions/diets).
This seems completely beside the point....I'm talking about the author of that passage and I'm talking about Judaism in a religious sense.
You claimed that a Jew who accepted Christ as Savior and Messiah could no longer be called a Jew. You didn't differentiate religion/culture, you merely said he could no longer be called Jewish.
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Old 07-10-2008, 01:08 PM   #73
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Jews became Christians even in those days.
...

Relevance?

Are you suggesting that Josephus was a Christian?
If he accepted Christ as Savior and Messiah, then yes, he was. There is disagreement as to whether or not he did, though.
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Old 07-10-2008, 01:10 PM   #74
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I repeat: what are the sources that you claim support your position?
Well, Josephus was born in 37 A.D. (his year of death is unknown). I'm going to assume he wrote Antiquities while he was alive. It stands to reason, therefore, that it was written when every source I've come across claims it was.
Given your premises, the only thing that stands to reason is is that the Antiquities was written before Josephus died.

But more to the point, what specifically are these sources that you've come across? Will you please name them? Do they include Thackery, Mason, Feldmann, Schalit?


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I don't see the need to challenge the MANY claims that it was written in 94.
How many specifically is "many"?

More importantly, how do you square your not seeing any need to challenge what your sources say with what Josephus himslef says was the date of his writing of the Antiquities? -- to wit:

τὰ γὰρ βιβλία, ὅσα δὴ συγγραψάμενος καταλέλοιπεν, ἀναγινώσκεται παρ' ἡμῖν ἔτι καὶ νῦν καὶ πεπιστεύκαμεν ἐξ αὐτῶν, ὅτι Δανίηλος ὡμίλει τῷ θεῷ: οὐ γὰρ τὰ μέλλοντα μόνον προφητεύων διετέλει, καθάπερ καὶ οἱ ἄλλοι προφῆται, ἀλλὰ καὶ καιρὸν ὥριζεν, εἰς ὃν ταῦτα ἀποβήσεται:


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Old 07-10-2008, 01:10 PM   #75
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Originally Posted by Equinox View Post
Let's try to get some earlier ones, so we can get up to "myriad".
If you're not going to accept them, and would rather grope desperately at the belief Jesus never existed, then I can't personally stop you. But don't push your definitions of the term onto me.
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Old 07-10-2008, 01:10 PM   #76
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Well, Josephus was born in 37 A.D. (his year of death is unknown). I'm going to assume he wrote Antiquities while he was alive. It stands to reason, therefore, that it was written when every source I've come across claims it was.
Given your premises, the only thing that stands to reason is is that the Antiquities was written before Josephus died.

But more to the point, what specifically are these sources that you've come across? Will you please name them? Do they include Thackery, Mason, Feldmann, Schalit?


Quote:
I don't see the need to challenge the MANY claims that it was written in 94.
How many specifically is "many"?

More importantly, how do you square your not seeing any need to challenge what your sources say with what Josephus himslef says was the date of his writing of the Antiquities? -- to wit:

τὰ γὰρ βιβλία, ὅσα δὴ συγγραψάμενος καταλέλοιπεν, ἀναγινώσκεται παρ' ἡμῖν ἔτι καὶ νῦν καὶ πεπιστεύκαμεν ἐξ αὐτῶν, ὅτι Δανίηλος ὡμίλει τῷ θεῷ: οὐ γὰρ τὰ μέλλοντα μόνον προφητεύων διετέλει, καθάπερ καὶ οἱ ἄλλοι προφῆται, ἀλλὰ καὶ καιρὸν ὥριζεν, εἰς ὃν ταῦτα ἀποβήσεται:


Jeffrey
Sigh.
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Old 07-10-2008, 01:12 PM   #77
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I cannot believe I'm now arguing whether Josephus' work was published in 94 A.D. or merely within 5 or so years of it.
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Old 07-10-2008, 01:12 PM   #78
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...

Relevance?

Are you suggesting that Josephus was a Christian?
If he accepted Christ as Savior and Messiah, then yes, he was. There is disagreement as to whether or not he did, though.
There is?? Where can we find this disagreement set out? Can you please point me to any scholarly discussion that argues that Josephus accepted Jesus as Messiah?

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Old 07-10-2008, 01:14 PM   #79
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This seems completely beside the point....I'm talking about the author of that passage and I'm talking about Judaism in a religious sense.
You claimed that a Jew who accepted Christ as Savior and Messiah could no longer be called a Jew. You didn't differentiate religion/culture, you merely said he could no longer be called Jewish.
You are equivocating - I was *SPECIFICALLY* talking about the Josephus passage. It's strikingly obvious. Let's review - I said:

Quote:
I'm no where near a bible scholar and I find it practically impossible for a Jew to write the above passage and remain a Jew.

How on earth can anyone look at that passage and not suspect at least some interpolation?
Is there any indication here that I was trying to suggest that Josephus suddenly morphed culturally speaking (or that such is possible?)?

No, so the principle of charity would dictate that I was obviously referring to religion, not ethnicity.

This is an absurd nitpick.

So, now that we are on the same page - are you sticking with your argument that anyone could think that the Josephus passage was not tampered with?

In short, are you sticking with this assertion:

Quote:
I see what you're saying here, but it's inaccurate. Josephus' work, some have claimed, has been altered to show a more favorable view of Christ. It is believed by some - not "almost universally admitted," but believed by some - that some of his statements referring to Christ's divinity were added to his writings. But all translations maintain his historical recordings of Jesus.
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Old 07-10-2008, 01:15 PM   #80
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Given your premises, the only thing that stands to reason is is that the Antiquities was written before Josephus died.

But more to the point, what specifically are these sources that you've come across? Will you please name them? Do they include Thackery, Mason, Feldmann, Schalit?




How many specifically is "many"?

More importantly, how do you square your not seeing any need to challenge what your sources say with what Josephus himslef says was the date of his writing of the Antiquities? -- to wit:

τὰ γὰρ βιβλία, ὅσα δὴ συγγραψάμενος καταλέλοιπεν, ἀναγινώσκεται παρ' ἡμῖν ἔτι καὶ νῦν καὶ πεπιστεύκαμεν ἐξ αὐτῶν, ὅτι Δανίηλος ὡμίλει τῷ θεῷ: οὐ γὰρ τὰ μέλλοντα μόνον προφητεύων διετέλει, καθάπερ καὶ οἱ ἄλλοι προφῆται, ἀλλὰ καὶ καιρὸν ὥριζεν, εἰς ὃν ταῦτα ἀποβήσεται:


Jeffrey
Sigh.
I take it the sigh comes from the fact that you can't support your claims that the CE 94 date has universal academic support. Or is it that you can't read Greek but wish you could?

Jeffrey
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