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Old 02-26-2012, 10:03 AM   #341
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Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
...Last to see the resurrected Jesus AFTER over 500 people.
The appearance to “500” can be found in Acts of Pilate Chapters 12 & 13.
“Pilate therefore, upon this, gave them five hundred soldiers, who also sat round the sepulchre so as to guard it” “And upon this there came up one of the soldiers guarding the tomb, and he said in the synagogue: Learn that Jesus has risen.”
...
The Pauline writer claimed it was OVER 500 BRETHREN--Not over 500 guards.

And you will notice that it was ONE soldier who claimed Jesus was risen in your source.

Now, I have shown, using apologetic sources, NOT Silence, that the Pauline writer stated:

1. He was a Persecutor of Christian churches in Judea. Galatians 1

2. The names of Christian BEFORE him, Andronicus and Junia. Romans 16

3. Over 500 Brethren saw the resurrected Jesus BEFORE him.[u] 1 cOR. 15

4. He was LAST to see the resurrected Jesus. [U]1 Cor.15

5. There ALREADY were Christian Scriptures which stated Jesus DIED for OUR Sins and that Jesus was raised on the THIRD Day. 1 Cor.15

The Pauline writings were AFTER The Short-Ending gMark which shows that Jesus did NOT ever claim he was to DIE for OUR SINS.

In gMark, it was ONLY necessary to believe that gMark's Jesus was the Christ to be saved.

gMark's Jesus did NOT ever preach or teach Salvation by giving his Life as a Sacrifice and did NOT ever claim he would die for the Sins of Jews or the whole world.

The Pauline writings are ALL after the Fall of the Jewish Temple c 70 CE.
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Old 02-26-2012, 10:06 AM   #342
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aa5874's "evidence" consists of arguments from silence
So do Doherty’s.
Doherty provides positive evidence, and shows that there are silences where it would not be expected. You would know this if you had read him.

:huh:
Where does Paul say Jesus was crucified in the Sub-Lunar???

Which letter??? Which chapter??? Which verse???

The Pauline writings are Canonized and does NOT contain the Heresy that Jesus was crucified in the Sub-Lunar.

The Canon of the Church is a NON-Heretical compilation.

The Pauline writings are SILENT on the Sub-lunar crucifixion.
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Old 02-26-2012, 10:37 AM   #343
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to Maryhelena:
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Only if you are assuming a historical NT 'Paul' - and then you have other problems to face.
What other problems?
‘Paul’ visited Corinth, according to your example, after 44 b.c. There is no problem with that in regard to a ‘Paul’ figure living in 63 b.c. ‘Paul’ is in Damascus in 63 b.c. and in Corinth sometime after 44 b.c. The problem is that if you want to run with a scenario of a real flesh and blood Paul living in 63 b.c. then you cannot have him living after the death of the gospel JC - which can be dated to 36 c.e. Paul a few years later - and now you have the problem that Paul is way over 100 years and about to start on a further 30 odd years ministry...Obviously, one cannot have Paul living in 63 b.c. - and nothing I have written has suggested such a thing. 'Paul' is a composite figure - used by the NT writers to tell whatever story that needed to be told.
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Down graded to be only an ethnarch over an ethnic percentage of the population. Still leaves you with other problems to face.
According to Josephus, all cities with Diaspora Jews got these "downgraded" ethnarchs acting on their behalf.
But it is an assumption that it is a downgraded ethnarch that is mentioned in 2 Cor: 11
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And 'Paul' could well be not a historical figure....
Too much effort in trying to deny his existence, not enough to understand him through his letters.
And your the one with the understanding.....
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As for the John (the Baptist) story in Josephus, it has it's own problems. The gospel story-line only dates the death of JC to the time of Pilate. That rule ends around 36 c.e. - the time of the war between Herod (Antipas) and Aretas. Dating the death of JC early - 30 c.e. presents quite a problem re Aretas IV being a very angry man over the divorce of his daughter from Antipas and having to contain that anger, over the insult to his family pride, for 6/7 years..
But there are reasons for the delay. From one of my webpage:
Quote:
The delay between "the first [occasion] of his enmity" (27C.E.) and the battle (36C.E.) can be explained as follows:
Client kings (of the Romans) were forbidden to make war against each other (understandably!). Furthermore, Josephus wrote Herod Antipas "was in great favour with Tiberius" (Ant., XVIII, II, 3). In these circumstances, it was impossible for Aretas to go immediately on the offensive and he had to wait for an opportune time.
In 36C.E., Tiberius was semi-retired in Capri and the Roman strong man in the East was Vitellius, the president of Syria. To maintain peace with the threatening Parthiates, Tiberius sent Vitellius to negotiate a treaty with the king of Parthia. The meeting was successful. Herod Antipas, who was also there, informed Tiberius about it, before Vitellius could do so. Vitellius was furious at Herod and looking for revenge (Ant., XVIII, IV, 5). Soon after, Aretas attacked the army of Herod. Why then? Aretas must have thought that Herod lost his Roman support: Tiberius was peace loving and weak, Vitellius would not do a thing for Antipas.
At first, he was wrong: Tiberius did order Vitellius to retaliate against Aretas. But when the Roman army was marching towards Petra, Tiberius died and Vitellius happily "recalled his army" (Ant., XVIII, V, 3).
And there is evidence for the delay:
Quote:
Also, Josephus related that Herod and Aretas "had some quarrel ... about their limits at the country of Gamalitis" . This area was part of the tetrarchy of Philip. But after Philip's death (33-34C.E.), it is likely both Herod and Aretas lobbied for it (before its annexation to Syria). Consequently, this latter quarrel must have started then.

Furthermore, a long delay between Herod Antipas & Herodias marriage and the battle in 36C.E. is implied in GMark. The following account is abnormally long and detailed, with some items quasi-legendary and probably drawn from John's latter followers, but, in passing, provides a valuable piece of information:
Mk6:19-28 "So Herodias
[Herod's new wife, presented as ambitious and scheming by Josephus]
` nursed a grudge against John and wanted to kill him ... On his birthday Herod gave a banquet for his high officials and military commanders and the leading men of Galilee. When the daughter of Herodias
[young Salome (whose father was Herodias' previous husband), later married to Philip, the king (tetrarch) of Cesarea Philippi, who died in 33-34C.E. Why later? Salome could not have performed a dance in front of a court of men as a married woman (to a king!) or as a royal widow. That would have been most improper, even scandalous]
` came in and danced, she pleased Herod and his dinner guests. The king said to the girl,
[a married woman or widow could not be called a "girl"]
` "... At once the girl hurried in to the king ... He presented it to the girl, and she gave it to her mother."

And there is still more evidence for a significant lapse of years between Herod's union with Herodias and the battle in 36C.E.:
In Josephus' Antiquities, XVIII, VI, 2-3, the future Agrippa I visits Herod and Herodias "who was now the wife of Herod the tetrach". Then he is given a position in Tiberias which he occupies for some (unspecified) time. Then he goes and stays in Syria when his friend Flaccus is its president (32-35C.E.). The length of his sejourn here is not told. Then Agrippa sails to Rome when Flaccus is still ruling.
I’ve no idea where you get the 27 c.e. date for "the first [occasion] of his enmity" re the conflict between Herod (Antipas) and Aretas IV. Without support for that dating your scenario falls down. And as for Herodias, Slavonic Josephus says she was married to Philip the Tetrarch until his death - a death given by Josephus at 34 ce. Thus, no chance of Herodias marrying Antipas to fit in with the usual gospel story interpretation. Shift the JC crucifixion to 36 c.e. and the divorce of Antipas from the daughter of Aretas to just prior to the war - and one does not have to assume a long delay in which Aretas IV has to control his anger towards Antipas. However, by shifting the JC crucifixion to 36 c.e. and Paul a few years later - one has then no way to get 'Paul' to Damascus while Aretas IV is still alive.

As for the idea that it was the daughter of Herodias, Salome, that was married to Philip the Tetrarch - Nikos Kokkinos has found reason to reject that Josephan story. gMark and gMatthew both have Herodias married to Philip - indicating that these two gospels were written prior to Antiquities. Keep in mind that when dealing with Josephus that one is dealing with a prophetic historian. His reconstruction of Herodian history is not without problems.
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What you can't do is provide historical evidence for the existence of the NT 'Paul'.
But you do not accept Acts (which I date around 90), or 1Clement (which I date around 81) as saying anything true about Paul.
Acts is problematic for historical enquiry. 2 Cor.11 and it’s Damascus and Aretas reference rules out being able to date ‘Paul’ via that connection.

Quote:
Page 152

“...the text of Acts provides no convincing evidence that Luke was attempting to compose a history of the early church or that he wished himself to be placed in the company of professional historians. Both those who seek to exonerate him of the foul charge of falsification and those who wish to prosecute him for his dastardly actions are dealing with a crime that never took place. These findings would not allow the case to proceed beyond a coroner’s jury, for without a crime, there can be no indictment and no trial........By our lights Luke is better regarded as a creative author than as an historian, for it is the expectation of our culture that historians will strive for objectivity, that, while they may argue a thesis and seek to make a good case for it, they will not falsify data or ignore other points of view or interpretations. Luke has no interest in objectivity.

The Mystery of Acts: Richard Pervo (or via: amazon.co.uk)
----------------------------

Re the mention of Nikos Kokkinos in regard to Herodias and Salome. His position is mentioned in this article: Implicating Herodias and Her Daughter in the Death of John the Baptizer:A (Christian) Theological Strategy? JBL 125, no. 2 (2006): 321–349

Regarding my mention of Josephus as a prophetic historian:

Dreams and Dream Reports in the Writing of Josephus, A Traditio-Historical Analysis (or via: amazon.co.uk) by Robert Karl Gnuse.

Prophetic Figures in Late Second Temple Jewish Palestine:The Evidence from Josephus (or via: amazon.co.uk) by Rebecca Gray
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Old 02-26-2012, 12:59 PM   #344
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to Maryhelena,
Quote:
‘Paul’ is in Damascus in 63 b.c. and in Corinth sometime after 44 b.c.
Do you have evidence for that?
First, the writer of Galatians did not know Paul was in Damascus before 63 BCE because he made a distinction between Damascus and Arabia, when both where under the rule of Aretas III then. Second, Paul (or the inventer) claimed in 2Cor that JC died. How does that fit with your comment that JC was crucified as late of 36 CE (as early as 26 CE?)?
How do you see a fiction writer putting Paul in 63-44 BCE and some other fiction writer putting JC in 26-36 CE? But wait:
Quote:
Obviously, one cannot have Paul living in 63 b.c
So now Paul living in 63 BC is out. But the writer of 2Cor put fictional Paul in Damascus before 63 BCE, knowing JC died some 90 years later! Or maybe he did not know the later. Or the writer had JC dead before 63 BCE. I am confused. What is your theory exactly? Paul is a composite figure? Can you explain that? Did you do a reconstruction of the different Pauls? Looks rather complicated to me.

Quote:
But it is an assumption that it is a downgraded ethnarch that is mentioned in 2 Cor: 11
Assumption, yes, but plausible.

Quote:
And your the one with the understanding
Absolutely. No laughing matter. And it's available for anyone to read.

Quote:
I’ve no idea where you get the 27 c.e. date for "the first [occasion] of his enmity" re the conflict between Herod (Antipas) and Aretas IV. Without support for that dating your scenario falls down.
Yes, my bad. That comes very abruptly in the quote I gave but I explained that earlier in my website.

Quote:
And as for Herodias, Slavonic Josephus says ...
Do you really think that book is truly written by Josephus? if you answer yes, please explain why.

Quote:
Keep in mind that when dealing with Josephus that one is dealing with a prophetic historian. His reconstruction of Herodian history is not without problems
Josephus explained in details how Antipas met Herodias in Rome, what went on between the two, what happened with Aretas' daughter his wife then, that Herodias had to divorce from a certain Herod (not Philip the tretrarch), an aristocrat living in Rome, a brother of Antipas but not from same mother, that eventually he got married with Herodias, the later union specified several times. Josephus, on that, knew what he was writing about, even if he may not for other things. And I do not think he was a "prophetic historian": where did you get that from?
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Old 02-26-2012, 01:21 PM   #345
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to Maryhelena,
I agree that "Luke" was creative in many parts of Acts, but has some common ground with the Pauline epistles, even if Acts' version is very embellished from Paul's account (like the so-called council in Jerusalem). However a few data from Acts fit and complement well what is found in the Pauline epistles. And together gives a detailed description of Paul's travels, correlation with his letters (for some of them, combined together), and furthermore, shows the evolution of Paul's Christology and theology (and why). Just dare to try it.
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Old 02-26-2012, 01:42 PM   #346
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Bernard, I am intrigued that you seem to take at face value that Acts was written by a single writer, and that writer must have been the fellow who wrote GLuke. Plus that there are some kind of hidden clues in Acts that correspond to the epistles despite the fact that that the Paul of the epistles is so different than the Paul/Saul of Acts.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Bernard Muller View Post
to Maryhelena,
I agree that "Luke" was creative in many parts of Acts, but has some common ground with the Pauline epistles, even if Acts' version is very embellished from Paul's account (like the so-called council in Jerusalem). However a few data from Acts fit and complement well what is found in the Pauline epistles. And together gives a detailed description of Paul's travels, correlation with his letters (for some of them, combined together), and furthermore, shows the evolution of Paul's Christology and theology (and why). Just dare to try it.
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Old 02-26-2012, 02:05 PM   #347
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Originally Posted by Bernard Muller View Post
to Maryhelena,
Quote:
‘Paul’ is in Damascus in 63 b.c. and in Corinth sometime after 44 b.c.
Do you have evidence for that?
Bernard - I was referencing your argument re Corinth!

Quote:
Originally Posted by Bernard Muller View Post
Paul visited Corinth. But Corinth was destroyed from 146BCE to 44BCE. That would allow only Aretas I and Aretas IV to be considered. That would eliminate Aretas II & III.
Quote:

First, the writer of Galatians did not know Paul was in Damascus before 63 BCE because he made a distinction between Damascus and Arabia, when both where under the rule of Aretas III then. Second, Paul (or the inventer) claimed in 2Cor that JC died. How does that fit with your comment that JC was crucified as late of 36 CE (as early as 26 CE?)?
How do you see a fiction writer putting Paul in 63-44 BCE and some other fiction writer putting JC in 26-36 CE? But wait:
OK - let me try one more time. My position on ’Paul’ is that this NT figure is a composite figure. So, therefore, talk of where ‘Paul’ was at any one time, in the storyline, has nothing to do with a flesh and blood figure. I used the analogy of a place marker, a name marker. A symbol, a symbolic marker. Here lies treasure; here lies history that is relevant to the pseudo-history that the writer is creating. X = ‘Paul’ marks the spot.

The gospel JC figure is a composite figure - ie no historical gospel JC. Consequently, that figure can have a crucifixion story any time within the rule of Pilate. Pilate dating being ambiguous re Josephus - that time frame runs from 19 c.e. to 36 c.e. (The Acts of Pilate having a crucifixion in 21 c.e., the 7th year of Tiberius).There is no fixed date for the JC crucifixion story - as there is no fixed nativity date.

Quote:

Quote:
Obviously, one cannot have Paul living in 63 b.c
So now Paul living in 63 BC is out. But the writer of 2Cor put fictional Paul in Damascus before 63 BCE, knowing JC died some 90 years later! Or maybe he did not know the later. Or the writer had JC dead before 63 BCE. I am confused. What is your theory exactly? Paul is a composite figure? Can you explain that? Did you do a reconstruction of the different Pauls? Looks rather complicated to me.

Quote:
But it is an assumption that it is a downgraded ethnarch that is mentioned in 2 Cor: 11
Assumption, yes, but plausible.

Quote:
And your the one with the understanding
Absolutely. No laughing matter. And it's available for anyone to read.

Quote:
I’ve no idea where you get the 27 c.e. date for "the first [occasion] of his enmity" re the conflict between Herod (Antipas) and Aretas IV. Without support for that dating your scenario falls down.
Yes, my bad. That comes very abruptly in the quote I gave but I explained that earlier in my website.

Quote:
And as for Herodias, Slavonic Josephus says ...
Do you really think that book is truly written by Josephus? if you answer yes, please explain why.
Did Josephus write the relevant NT scenarios that are now contained within Slavonic Josephus? Who knows? Personally, I doubt that he was the creator, the originator, of the wonder-doer story. That does not mean that he could not have used a source. The relevance is the story that it contains not the source - and how that story can throw some light upon the development of the JC storyboard.
Quote:


Quote:
Keep in mind that when dealing with Josephus that one is dealing with a prophetic historian. His reconstruction of Herodian history is not without problems
Josephus explained in details how Antipas met Herodias in Rome, what went on between the two, what happened with Aretas' daughter his wife then, that Herodias had to divorce from a certain Herod (not Philip the tretrarch), an aristocrat living in Rome, a brother of Antipas but not from same mother, that eventually he got married with Herodias, the later union specified several times. Josephus, on that, knew what he was writing about, even if he may not for other things. And I do not think he was a "prophetic historian": where did you get that from?
Josephus can spin tall tales just as fine as those spun by the writer of Acts.


Quote:
Preface to the War of the Jews, ch.1.par.6

....many Jews before me have composed the histories of our ancestors very exactly;......... But then, where the writers of these affairs and our prophets leave off, thence shall I take my rise, and begin my history.
Quote:
Dreams and Dream Reports in the Writing of Josephus, A Traditio-Historical Analysis (or via: amazon.co.uk)by Robert Karl Gnuse.

Josephus’ prophetic role as historian merits special attention.....In War 1.18-19 he declares that he will begin writing his history where the prophets ended theirs, so he is continuing this part of their prophetic function. According to Ap.1.29 the priests were custodians of the nation’s historical records, and in Ap.1.37 inspired prophets wrote that history. As a priest Josephus is a custodian of his people’s traditions, and by continuing that history in the Jewish War and subsequently by rewriting it in his Antiquities, he is a prophet. For Josephus prophets and historians preserve the past and predict the future, and he has picked up the mantle of creating prophetic writings. Perhaps, in his own mind he is the first since the canonical prophets to generate inspired historiography....
Quote:
Prophetic Figures in Late Second Temple Jewish Palestine:The Evidence from Josephus (or via: amazon.co.uk) by Rebecca Gray

There is no denying that the picture we now possess of Josephus as a prophet has been refined and developed in various ways. For example, the ideas that he claims first came to him in a moment of prophetic revelation at Jotapata – that God was punishing the Jews for their sins and that fortune had gone over to the Romans - have become major interpretive themes in the War as a whole. Josephus also sometimes reinforces the prophetic claims that he makes for himself by subtle changes in his presentation of the ancient prophets. And it is probable that, with the passage of time, Josephus’ image of himself as a prophet became clearer in his own mind.
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Old 02-26-2012, 02:28 PM   #348
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Originally Posted by Bernard Muller View Post
to Maryhelena,
I agree that "Luke" was creative in many parts of Acts, but has some common ground with the Pauline epistles, even if Acts' version is very embellished from Paul's account (like the so-called council in Jerusalem). However a few data from Acts fit and complement well what is found in the Pauline epistles. And together gives a detailed description of Paul's travels, correlation with his letters (for some of them, combined together), and furthermore, shows the evolution of Paul's Christology and theology (and why). Just dare to try it.
It is most critical to understand that the author of Acts did NOT at all state that Saul/Paul wrote letters to churches.

Incredibly, there is NO support in the NT Canon for the claim that Paul wrote letters to churches.

If we ASSUME that the author of Acts wrote LONG after the supposed Paul, perhaps 40-200 years later, presumably c 90-250 CE, then it would be expected the author would have seen a supposed Pauline letter and would have heard Paul wrote letters to many churches.

Remarkably, the author of Acts, if it is ASSUMED he wrote Late ONLY claimed Paul traveled and preached all over the Roman Empire and did NOT write anything about Paul's letters.

The author of Acts claimed it was the Jerusalem Church that wrote letters and gave them to Paul and his travelling companion to hand deliver.

Acts of the Apostle was MOST likely written before the supposed letters to the churches and was NOT originally about Paul but a character called Saul.

It would appear that the name Saul in Acts was changed to Paul after the Pauline letters were composed.

The author of Acts did NOT get the name Saul from the Pauline writings and it is NOT expected that an author who supposedly wrote long after writings under the name of Paul to have INTRODUCED the character as Saul knowing that he would change it back to Paul.

The most reasonable explantion is that Acts of the Apostles was written BEFORE it was claimed Paul wrote letters to churches.
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Old 02-26-2012, 02:46 PM   #349
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IF we ask why the second name of Saul was even important to Acts we realize that it makes no appreciable difference to anything in the story line UNLESS the tale was originally about two different individuals.
For some strange reason the author introduces the name change totally out of the blue without any explanation whatsoever in a few words in Acts 13:9 in a manner that suggests an interpolation for the sake of the transition:
"Then Saul, who was also called Paul, filled with the Holy Spirit, looked straight at Elymas and said"
The new fellow, Paul is not named again until 13:13:
"From Paphos, Paul and his companions sailed to Perga in Pamphylia, where John left them to return to Jerusalem."
And then in 9:16 to give a speech, one of several (whereby Saul didn't give such speeches):
"Standing up, Paul motioned with his hand and said: "Men of Israel and you Gentiles who worship God, listen to me!"
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Old 02-26-2012, 02:48 PM   #350
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To Maryhelena,
Well that still looks very complicated to me. And you put too much reliance on writings like the Slavonic Josephus and Acts of Pilate.
Well, the so-called prophecy moment in Jotapata is just politics to me, something Josephus sold to his captors in order to save his skin and kept repeating it to assure him of a good life in Rome.
As far as the prophets are concerned, true, it seems that they were written history, but that was mostly with hindsights (after the facts), or because cursing against enemies was interpreted as prophecies later whenever that enemy got destroyed or conquered, or because of tenuous interpretation (such as about Daniel also predicting the destruction of Jerusalem by the Romans). And Josephus, as a good Jew, would go along with that (the so-called successful prophecy becoming history) but I do not think he was going overboard and making his own prophecies in guise of history. That needs to be proven. Where does Josephus predict the future and create prophetic writings?
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