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11-10-2008, 08:40 PM | #211 | |
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I will let you think about this a little more. Hopefully next year we can discuss it again. You may have been able to find a copy of Robert Lane-Fox by that time. Best wishes Pete |
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11-10-2008, 09:01 PM | #212 | ||
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11-11-2008, 07:21 AM | #213 |
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11-11-2008, 09:42 PM | #214 | |
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Are you saying that these people had no notion of the idea of four parts in five as a distinct numerical distribution that was different from zero, or one, or two, or three, or five parts in five? Best wishes, Pete |
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11-12-2008, 08:00 AM | #215 | |
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Are you saying that anyone who understands what four-fifths means is a statistician? |
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11-12-2008, 04:09 PM | #216 | ||
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Anyone who understands the concept of the numerical proportion of four parts in five obviously understands some of the rudiments of statistics and while it is quite evident that they were not known by the name of statisticians, they were known as mathematicians and much, if not all, of the rudimentary knowledge which these guys preserved is still with us. Perhaps a classic example is the use the Pythagorean theorem in Special (and thus in General) Relativity. Was Pythagoras a physicist? In these modern terms perhaps he was not ---- however that he was a mathematician (and Euclid a geometrician preserved by Porphyry) cannot be denied. Give the ancients the credit they deserve. We may have formalised the discipline of mathematics into pure, statistical and applied mathematics in recent centuries, but these are names only of collections of mathematical concepts and notions which were known --- if only in rudimentary terms --- to the ancients in one form or another by different names. Best wishes, Pete |
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11-12-2008, 04:26 PM | #217 | ||
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11-12-2008, 11:35 PM | #218 | |||||
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I'll decide what they deserve according to the evidence. There is no evidence that they knew what you're claiming they knew. Quote:
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11-13-2008, 05:00 AM | #219 | |||
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We are here trying to imagine what was in the mind and the politics of the ancients, not to depreciate their abilities. Do you have any idea what an aliquot part is? Quote:
Were the gospels going to agree with each other in zero parts in five, or in one or in two parts in five or even three parts in five? No of course not, they were more certainly in agreement than that! There was far more agreement than disagreement. The ratio of agreement was four parts in five, since nobody in their right mind would believe four gospels exactly the same having agreement in the ratio of five parts to five. The Eusebian canon tables demonstrate an agreement between Matthew, Mark, Luke and John of four parts in five. Did I mention statistical mathematics? I reduced it to a choice. Supposing you had to fabricate four independent eyewitness accounts of a figure, either historical or fictional, and you were given a choice in how the four independent testimonies agreed. Would you have them agree in zero parts in five? Would you have them agree in one part in five? Would you have them agree in two parts in five? Would you have them agree in three parts in five? Would you have them agree in four parts in five? Or would you have them agree in five parts in five? Best wishes, Pete |
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11-13-2008, 01:40 PM | #220 |
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Hi Pete - if I were going to forge a new religion, I would have them agree 100% where they overlapped, with each containing some special unique material.
The idea that eyewitness testimony is never exactly the same is a very, very modern one, possibly even newer than the subject of statistics. The four gospels do not show evidence (whether real or intentionally forged) of four different witnesses, but of four different theological positions, indicating that the canon was formed as a political compromise between several theological factions (there are 4 gospels because 4 was a magic number, but one might have been thrown in to bring the number up to 4). This would indicate that Christianity evolved over time up to the formation of the canon, and was not created in the 4th century. |
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