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Old 03-24-2006, 02:29 AM   #61
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Originally Posted by gstafleu
It might be of some scholarly interest to figure out what the minimax Jesus is. By that I mean: what are the maximum number of attributes of a minimalist Jesus that the evidence can reasonably be seen to support. I think that is what the Jesus Seminar tried to do, so maybe the list of red sayings and the conclusion about the HJ on this wikipedia page give some idea of what a minimax (maximin?) Jesus could look like.

But that should be a different debate than the MJ-HJ debate. Primarily because a minimax Jesus cannot serve as a basis for Christianity.
I think that this is very much to the point. After reading a number of JS expositions & others of the (an) historical Jesus, I was left wondering 'what's it all about Alphy?". However, since I have never really connected with the religiosi I thus supposed that it was the usual misunderstanding.

Then I became aware of the HJ/MJ debate. Well, us physicists like a few hard facts thrown into the mill (as opposed to warm and fuzzy feelings). Seriously jjr & GDon, it makes a hell of a lot of difference. When there is no consensus, nor even a recognised methodology for obtaining such, re the HJ, it makes life difficult for plebs like me.

I started from scratch, and scratch don't itch.
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Old 03-24-2006, 05:12 AM   #62
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The problem is that the Gospels don't look like they evolved "over the centuries."
True. They look more like they evolved over just a few generations.
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Old 03-24-2006, 05:36 AM   #63
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
True. They look more like they evolved over just a few generations.
For the most part, the gospels are fairly complete upon being written initially. I would argue that Matthew is almost wholly the same as it was in 100* CE as it was in 300 CE. There are several verses which I believe to be interpolations, several which I think could be interpolations, and several which are corrupted, but substantially not much has changed.

*Not sure yet on the dating of Matthew, but I'm fairly certain it was penned before 100 CE.
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Old 03-24-2006, 08:44 AM   #64
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Originally Posted by jjramsey
Judging from Muller's work, Paul used both,...
Context is everything. I have used the word "pipe" many times but it does not always mean the same thing. One who knows English can tell when I use it in a peculiar fashion. In the same sense, we can tell if Paul uses a certain phrase in a peculiar fashion. You cant just dismiss an argument without even examining it.
Plus, it is rather silly to refer to Muller's work. His critique was found to be framed and informed by a poorly instructed mind and is riddled with errors and misconceptions. Carrier, Myself, Doherty and Michael Turton have examined Muller's 'review' and debunked several of his views. You have to start with them before you can parade Muller's review as anything approaching a critique of Doherty's thesis. Muller simply presented different views from Doherty's. A rebuttal requires more effort. A scholarly rebuttal requires scholarly work. Requires reading what scholars have written about the subject. Something Muller never did. And he confesses as much.

It is not enough to show that one has a different opinion than Doherty's.
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Originally Posted by jjramsey
...and neither was peculiar.
List sources contemporary to Paul that use kata sarka to refer to an earthly incarnation. If you cannot (and I know you cannot), you have no basis for claiming it was not a peculiar usage of the phrase.
Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
More to the point, it really doesn't help the mythicist case, since Doherty's translation of kata sarka as "in the Middle Platontic realm of the fleshly spirits" doesn't work.
An empty declaration like that does nothing to show us how Doherty's translation doesn't work.
Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
This is a pseudoproblem. Again, Paul is addressing the problems of the churches with which he is corresponding, not giving pious history lessons. Yes, it would be nice for us if he gave details, but hardly necessary for his original audience.
You will do well to develop a substantive rebuttal to Doherty's Top 20 Silences.
Your glib "This is a pseudoproblem" dismissal appears inattentive to the arguments that have been advanced. I welcome you to falsify Doherty's arguments. Lets see what you are capable of.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
Why Paul and Mark rely on the OT to construct a "life" for Jesus.
Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
The answer to this is simple: They don't necessarily. Matthew and Luke certainly historicize prophecy, most notably in the birth narratives. Paul doesn't give much in the way of details to start with, but the bits like Jesus' crucifixion look more like they were justified by the OT after the fact. With Mark, some events are a toss-up. The triumphal entry is certainly derived from prophecy, but it is not clear whether it is Jesus deliberately acting out prophecy to make a statement, or Mark making it up.
You have not answered the question. Whether "Paul doesn't give much in the way of details to start with" does not explain why he used the OT and not eyewitness accounts. The rest of your comments are red herrings meant to distract readers from the issue I advanced.
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Originally Posted by jjramsey
Big problem: archontes can mean earthly authorities, and Paul used it that way himself, i.e. in Romans 13:3-6. It is at least questionable to read Paul's use of archontes in 1 Corinthians 2:6-8 as "demons."
Several scholars have worked on the meaning of archontes already and there is hardly anything you can add on this matter. There are a few conservatives who share your position but it is clear which side critical scholars favour.
In the first place, the word aeon (age/world) had a spiritual meaning.
R. Brown, J. Fitzmyer and R. Murphy in The New Jerome Critical Commentary, 1990, p.782 write that: "Contemporary Jewish theology contrasted 'this world (age)' with 'the world (age) to come.' Paul echoes that contrast and sees the former dominated by satan (see 1 Cor. 4:4). Christ's 'giving' of himself has brought about the meeting of the two ages (1 Cor. 10:11) and freed human beings from 'this age'"

In his translation of Contra Celsum, Chadwick notes that the "prince of this world" in Romans refers to 1 Cor. 2:8 (which he argues, has a spiritual meaning).
Leon Morris (1 Corinthians, pp. 53-54) also says Origen took the 'princes of this world' to mean demons (Origen Contra Celsum Book VIII, 13, Translated by Henry Chadwick, 1965)

The following scholars support the interpretation of "princes of this world" as referring to spiritual beings:

1. Paul Ellingworth A Translator's Handbook for 1 Corinthians, p.46
2. W. J. P. Boyd, '1 Corinthians ii.8,' Expository Times 68. p.158.
3. C. K. Barrett, First Epistle to the Corinthians, p.72
4. Paula Fredriksen, From Jesus to Christ, p.56
5. Jean Hering, The First Epistle of St. Paul to the Corinthians, p.16-17
6. S. G. F. Brandon., Time History and Deity, p.167
7. Buttrick G.A. (ed.), The Interpreter's Bible, Vol X, 1953, p.37-38,
8. R. Brown, J. Fitzmyer and R. Murphy in The New Jerome Critical Commentary, 1990, p.782 (see [7] below)
9. Others: Delling, Conzelmann, Thackeray, Schmiedel, J. H. Charlesworth, Ignatius letter to the Smyreans, 6:1

Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
Think about it this way. Who would think it was worthwhile to write accounts of Jesus' ministry, the Christians who respected him, or the non-Christians who regarded Christianity as a pernicious superstition?
You are assuming what you should be proving. You have not answered the question. Historians dont choose "favourites".
Note that, anyone who had the might and authority to violently drive out moneychangers out of the temple during passover time could not have failed to catch the attention of historians.
The temple Ruckus, it has been demonstrated, was constructed using Nehemiah and other OT sources as the hypotext (see Troughton(sp?)). Plus, Fredricksen has also shown that the incident is unlikely to have happened.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
Why not even *one* event in Mark can be regarded as historical based on rhetorical, source, narrative and form critical analysis.
Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
That is a loaded question with a dubious premise...
Demonstrate that it is loaded. I challenge you to examine Michael Turton's Historical Commentary on The Gospel of Mark (online - link below) and develop an argument against the methodology he employs.
Before you do that, you have no starting point. At best, you get to demonstrate your ignorance in spectacular fashion.
Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
...I also note a bit of fudging there: "based on rhetorical, source, narrative and form critical analysis." I noticed that issues of whether the event described in Mark has incidental or embarassing information are left out.
You are alluding to the embarrasment criterion. Positive criteria have been shown to be demonstraby unreliable. The nearest place to check is Turton's commentary. Then come back.
Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
The question appears to be implying that no one event in Mark is thought of as historical, which is false. For example, the crucifixion itself is generally agreed to be historical by all but the MJers.
First of all, you are talking people and numbers. I am talking method.
Which is it going to be? A popularity contest or the strength of the arguments?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
Why we have so many Jesuses, a miracle worker, marginal Jew and all other brands of Jesus conservative scholars churn out every day, depending on how they (the scholars), wake up.
Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
Conservative scholars, such as N.T. Wright, have pretty much just one Jesus: Jesus Christ, the son of the living God. The liberal and moderate scholars are more fractured, but even here, most of these Jesuses fall in two general categories: Jesus as a essentially a sage or moral teacher, and Jesus as the apocalpytic prophet. IMHO, the former is mostly an image of what liberal Christians want Jesus to be, but the latter actually does a pretty good job of explaining why the NT has the content that it has.
Hardly.
Lets have a brief rundown of these Jesuses:

N.T. Wright proposes that the historical Jesus was a revolutionary and saviour. Geza Vermes presents a historical Jesus who is a charismatic teacher, healer, and exorcist - a Galilean holy man. Robert H. Stein proposes that he was a supernatural historical miracle worker and saviour. Marcus Borg talks of Jesus as a spirit person, subversive sage, social prophet, and movement founder. John Dominic Crossan and Burton Mack tell us that the historical Jesus was a cynic sage/ landless labourer, displaced peasant. J.P Meier tells us that Jesus was a marginalized jew (a ‘blip’ on the radar screen of pagans and mainstream Jews), a radical egalitarian feminist socialist with a social agenda. Stevan Davies tells us that the historical Jesus was a healer - alternate personality as "the spirit of God,". Robert Eisenman hypothesizes that the historical Jesus was a Torah-observant and nationalistic Jew of insurrectionist leaning. Paula Fredriksen, Bart Ehrman, Theissen, E.P. Sanders, Dale Allison and Ludemann all claim that Jesus apocalyptic prophet. Richard Horsley tells us he was a social revolutionary for an egalitarian society. Stevan Davies claims he was a Galilean charismatic, Luke Timothy Johnson persuades us that Jesus as a son of god who was baptized and died for our sins. Riley tells us he was a Hellenistic hero. The Jesus seminar vouch for an uprooted, iconoclastic Jesus who is dissimilar to both the antedecent Jewish tradition and the christian one that followed it and who is a wandering cynic philosopher, and so on and so forth.
Now, if your head is not spinning, I dont know what can spin it.

If the assumption that a HJ existed is incorrect, as I argue it is, then the historical certainities HJ scholars assign to the pericopes and the HJ reconstructions they engage in are at best irrelevant; at worst they are deceptive and misleading to readers who haven't familiarized themselves well with this field of study.

I argue that this assumption inevitably informs the choices they make in their criticism. The assumption, without doubt, makes them reject alternative possibilities as they analyze historiographical evidence and taints every conclusion they draw. Like a brush soaked with paint, every stroke they make is coloured by this assumption, even when it is not intended.

This historical Jesus epidemic has spread accross the entire range of miltivaried historical constructions from the textual stratigraphy, to the archaeological examination to the sociological lens.

An important point to bear in mind is that the data does not allow us to assume, a priori, that a historical Jesus existed. Quite the contrary. But that, is exactly what biblical scholars do: they treat the existence of a HJ is a maxim. I argue that this is the untamed demon undermining their earnest efforts and damning their conclusions.

A Horrifying Profusion of Anomalous and Grosteque Jesuses

In The Historical Jesus (1991), John Dominic Crossan says regarding the unstandardized nature of historical Jesus research: "the historical Jesus research is becoming something of a scholarly bad joke".
Crossan adds that because of this comical and irregular nature "it is impossible to avoid the suspicion that historical Jesus research is a very safe place to do theology and call it history, to do autobiography and call it biography". However, Meier, as we learn below, thinks that Crossan and like-minded scholars are deluded on this and he contends that HJ scholars are doing theology, whether they realize it or not.

Crossan's observations may be correct but the only problem is that he is part of the 'bad joke'. Instead of extracting himself from the obviously flawed process and undertaking the burden of assiduously seeking and eliminating the anomaly that makes a harmony unattainable, he instead, like a moth to the flame joins the orgy.

While he complains that there is "acute scholarly subjectivity" pervading the Historical Jesus studies, a neutral observer can easily discern that, in the midst of the melee of the Jesus Wars (as some Americans refer to it), Crossan too, with his face glistening with sweat and chest heaving with exertion, suffers from the same bias he accuses his warring colleagues of suffering from. Perhaps not the exactly in the same fashion, but it nevertheless contributes to the malaise in HJ research.

What are the symptoms that indicate to us that HJ research is in serious jeopardy? Its output. HJ scholars have come up with a horrifying profusion of anomalous and grosteque Jesuses.
Read more here.

Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
It seems that the conservative scholars are happy to let the online Christian apologists deal with him. As for the moderates and liberals, there already is stuff on that forum to that effect, such as the thread Romans 1.3, κατα σαϿκα, Ignatius, Irenaeus, and Origen, and other stuff online, such as Bernard Muller's work.
Muller has been examined and found wanting as I have stated. Doherty has specifically responded, blow by blow, to Muller's work. Muller has not mustered a response.
If you are going to rely on him, quit while you are ahead. Kata Sarka was debated about here, fully, in a discussion involving Carrier, Doherty and Jeff Gibson. It ended up with Gibson imagining what certain professors thought.
Now, if you can get someone whose Greek credentials are better than Goibson, someone who also passionately discredits the MJ hypothesis, name him. When push came to shove, Jeff was incapable of dealing with the issues. He instead solicited opinions from professors. They refused to agree with him about Carrier's competence. He then chose to read their mind and state what they never stated.
If you get someone more competent in Greek than Carrier, and one who has a passionate dislike for MJ hypothesis, bring him here and we'll have his guts ripped apart.
Until then, dont even start.
Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
From Googling around, it isn't too clear whether you mean that Mark uses "Nazara" rather than "Nazareth," or if you mean that the Alexandrian texts do not have Mark 1:9 say, "In those days Jesus came from Nazareth of Galilee and was baptized by John in the Jordan," leaving only references to Jesus being a Nazarene.
. I can't say it is a big problem.
If what you do is "google around" then dismiss issues, Why dont you stick to what you can say then.
Turton writes:
Quote:
"Nazareth." The problem of Jesus' origin in Nazareth is really two problems. First, what does the author of Mark say is the relationship between Jesus and Nazareth? Second, was there a village by that name existing in the first century?

The first question is the more easily resolved of the two. Here in Mark 1:9 "Nazareth" is apparently a later addition to the text.
First, it does not appear in the parallel passages in Matthew or Luke. In Luke Jesus goes to the baptism from Galilee, but there is no Nazareth.

Second, this is the only use of the word "Nazareth" in Mark; all other usages are a Greek word, nazarhnos, generally translated as "Nazarene." "Nazarene" can mean either a sectarian designation, or "of (the location of) Nazara," but it cannot mean "of Nazareth." How the ending "th" became attached to it is a mystery that no one has yet solved. The key idea here, as a friend pointed out, is that if the writer of Mark really thought that Jesus was from Nazareth, why does he keep saying that he is "of Nazara?"

In Mark 2:1 the writer identifies Capernaum as Jesus' home, not Nazareth. This identification of Capernaum is supported by Matthew 4:13: "Leaving Nazareth, he went and lived in Capernaum, which was by the lake in the area of Zebulun and Naphtali--." Why else would Capernaum have appeared here, if Matthew did not understand that Jesus had a home there? Against this Painter (1999) argues that the use of en oiko -- "at home" in Mark 2:1 is supposed to reflect back to Mark 1:29, where the home in question is that of Peter's mother-in-law, not that of Jesus. Yet the writer has the news of Jesus' being "at home" reported, as if his connection with the place were known. This implies that we should read 2:1 as referring to Jesus' home, not the home of Peter's mother-in-law. Further, the writer of Mark does not clarify whether Nazareth or Capernaum was Jesus' home, indicating that perhaps he did not write "Nazareth." This is supported by Zindler's (2000) observation that Capernaum should be read as "Home of the Paraclete," a signifying name that would well suit Jesus' mission.

It should also be noted that one editor of Matthew removed all the references to nazarhnos in his original source. This is usually done when terms were found to be obscure. If the writer of Mark had mentioned nazaret at 1:9, would the editor of Matthew have removed the references to nazarhnos from the text? Had both terms been present in the text, nazaret would have explained nazarhnos.

Yet another strike against the presence of "Nazareth" in this verse originally is that the writer of Mark never explains or apologizes for the identification of Nazareth as Jesus' hometown in his gospel (compare Matthew 2:23: "and he went and lived in a town called Nazareth. So was fulfilled what was said through the prophets: 'He will be called a Nazarene'.")

Further, the usage of "Nazareth" is apparently untypical of the writer's style. Gundry (1993, p388) notes that in Mark's entire gospel only in v9 does he place a geographical location in a larger context (Nazareth....of Galilee).
Read more here.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
The (geographical) errors in Mark.
Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
This is a problem for inerrantists, not historicists.
Yeah, right. Divide and rule at work.
The point is, anything that compromises Mark as a historical source undermines the validity of believing that the events described in it are historical.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
It is important to note that the Platonic worldview was nonsensical and constructed from incomplete and erroneous knowledge.
Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
Yet the idea that all change, motion, corruption, demons, etc. takes place below the firmament is a straightforward concept, even if it is wrong.
Red Herring. One "straightforward" aspect of a worldview, does nothing to salvage the rest of the nonsensical aspects in that worldview.
Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
It is not a red herring to expect Doherty to deal with Middle Platonism as it actually was.
Ascension of Isaiah, for example, does not provide the exact location where the demons were fighting. Paul does not provide the exact location of the second and third heaven. Or whether there were toilets there.
Yet what apologists keep asking Doherty when he provides his interpretation of kata sarka is to provide precise, logical details.
Do you even know that that is what has been happening?
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Old 03-24-2006, 09:15 AM   #65
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Spoken like a true Englishman!
I am half Welsh so that may be an insult! (hint - my first name!)

And the history of who has claimed Arthur is fascinating.

On the play, have a read of Nazarenus, authorship is debatable but the descriptions of the tooing and froing are convincing!

Xianity has always evolved its doctines -trinity, christology, Mary etc.

It may be centuries if Jesus is modelled on the teacher of righteousness!

Whatever model Jesus we have, is the lack of writing important? Looking at the gospels we have a picture of someone well able to argue, who knows their Bible, who is said to have spent time when young with the priests.

Would we not expect some writing from someone - who with the cynic arguments and the parables, feels highly educated? The Roman Empire had reasonable standards of literacy.

Have forged writings of Jesus been produced? We have bits of the cross, why not something more substantial? The pentateuch is ascribed to Moses, why nothibg to Jesus?
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Old 03-24-2006, 09:31 AM   #66
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I am half Welsh so that may be an insult! (hint - my first name!)

And the history of who has claimed Arthur is fascinating.

Well, the Welsh are the true Britons, right? And Arthur was their champion against the invading Anglo-Saxons, right? So I should have said, "spoken like a true Briton".


Quote:
Would we not expect some writing from someone - who with the cynic arguments and the parables, feels highly educated? The Roman Empire had reasonable standards of literacy.
Look, we don't have any writings directly from the Stoic philosopher Epictetus (c.55–c.135) . His student, Arrian, gives us the only account we have of what he said. Epictetus was a famous teacher in the Imperial capital. Jesus was a nobody from nowhere. So, no, it isn't surprising that we have so little from him. We should be grateful to his amme haaretz followers for how much they managed to preserve.
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Old 03-24-2006, 10:19 AM   #67
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I'm a layman in this field but from what I am reading here and the kind of evidences I would require, I am leaning towards the mythical Jesus. The whole story makes perfect sense to me in this light as opposed to how utterly amazing it would have been for Jesus to be an actual human that had all this religion fall into being because of him, literally change the world yet have no historical significance at the time of his walking as to bear any real eyewitnesses. Even if he wasn't the son of God this would be amazing...
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Old 03-24-2006, 10:28 AM   #68
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How utterly amazing it would have been for Jesus to be an actual human that had all this religion fall into being because of him, literally change the world yet have no historical significance at the time of his walking as to bear any real eyewitnesses. Even if he wasn't the son of God this would be amazing...
It is amazing. Simply put, this is a case where a person of tremendous abilities is grossly misunderstood. The complexity lies in properly assessing the man and his abilities, and in understanding the process which leads others to such gross misunderstanding. As for how neglected he was in his own time, look at Mozart, a mere couple of centuries ago, in one of the world's great capitals, being dumped into a pauper's grave.
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Old 03-24-2006, 10:41 AM   #69
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The amazing part is the affect he had on so many people and yet no mention outside Xian sources which lends credence to the MJ stance...
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Old 03-24-2006, 10:54 AM   #70
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The amazing part is the affect he had on so many people and yet no mention outside Xian sources which lends credence to the MJ stance...
You find it amazing that a great man suffers obscurity in his own lifetime only to receive wide fame after his death? You should read more history, I think.
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