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Old 09-24-2010, 01:25 PM   #71
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Given that heck of a lot to do with Jewish background, why overlook it in this case when there is clear thunder connection with the Jewish god?

spin
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I don't think it's reasonable to view the gospel authors as oblivious of their surrounding culture. Mark must have known "sons of thunder" would be taken as a reference to the Dioscori, so the fact he included it in his story means it was not inadvertent.

Next, we have the 'sons of thunder' offering to bring down lightning. Again, unless you think Mark lived in an underground synagogue his whole life, it doesn't seem reasonable to me that he chose the 'sons of thunder' by coincidence for this scene.

Why is this not the simplest explanation? You might argue that this was a bit of playfulness on the part of Mark, but I don't think it's reasonable to argue that it's just coincidence derived entirely from Jewish scripture.

A further note. Outside of the subfield of Biblical history, other historians seem to view 'sons of thunder' as unquestioningly referring to the Dioscori. For example, Américo Castro y Quesada, a Spanish cultural historian writes in his book "The Spaniards: An Introduction to Their History", p 390,

And James the son of Zebedee, and John the brother of James, and he surnamed them Boanerges, which is, the sons of thunder." Now "sons of thunder" corresponds in meaning to the Greek Dios-kuroi or "sons of Jupiter the Thunderer"
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I believe the 'Dioscuri' have not anything to do in this matter .....

I think it got to this point I can add a detail that I would have wished remained unpublished, as an advantage for my 'legendary' book that I'm laboriously composing (because it require me a heavy work of research and study).

The reason to the basis of the attribute 'SONS OF THUNDER' (Boanerges, according to the gospels), is that Zebedee had nicknamed his own wife by "the 'THUNDER'" nickname!... That's why Jesus called the two apostles 'Sons of Thunder'!!...

I given an indication, but it has not been collected, namely that among the writings found at Qumran, there is a treaty (the 'Brontologium') from which you can guess that at the time of Jesus (but certainly even before) there was a sort of 'specialization ' among the Jews, consisting in the ability to collect premonitory signs from the characteristics of Thunder (power, propagation velocity, direction, etc.).

It is therefore likely that the wife of Zebedee was one of those Jews able to do that, and for this reason nicknamed 'the Thunder'....


Greetings


Littlejohn


NOTE: from that above said, therefore, it is clear that is to collapse all those myriads of assumptions, according to which the attribute 'Sons of Thunder' had to do with the world of the Zealot rebellion, by which Jesus has had really to do about, but only in the last part of his life (between the years 66-72 approximately)

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Old 09-24-2010, 01:26 PM   #72
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James and John are explicitly named the Sons of Thunder in Mark 3:17

James son of Zebedee and his brother John (to them he gave the name Boanerges, which means Sons of Thunder);
Mark clearly interpreted Boanerges as Sons of Thunder, the issue, as Stephan Huller pointed out, is that it is difficult to suggest an Aramaic phrase meaning Sons of Thunder of which Boanerges is an accurate transliteration.

Mark's interpretation is not necessarily correct.

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Old 09-24-2010, 01:44 PM   #73
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A further note. Outside of the subfield of Biblical history, other historians seem to view 'sons of thunder' as unquestioningly referring to the Dioscori. For example, Américo Castro y Quesada, a Spanish cultural historian writes in his book "The Spaniards: An Introduction to Their History", p 390,

And James the son of Zebedee, and John the brother of James, and he surnamed them Boanerges, which is, the sons of thunder." Now "sons of thunder" corresponds in meaning to the Greek Dios-kuroi or "sons of Jupiter the Thunderer"
Dioskouroi has an etymology youths (kouroi) of Zeus (Dios). Although Zeus is a thunder-god (among other roles) there is no explicit mention of thunder here.

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Old 09-24-2010, 01:52 PM   #74
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Isn't there a Roman background to the Gospel too? :huh:
You were the one speculating to that effect!


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How is this speculation, when the writer includes characters from Roman history, Roman customs and traditions, knowledge of Roman laws, etc. ? Did he just guess at all those things and happen to get it right?
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Old 09-24-2010, 01:55 PM   #75
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Mark clearly interpreted Boanerges as Sons of Thunder, the issue, as Stephan Huller pointed out, is that it is difficult to suggest an Aramaic phrase meaning Sons of Thunder of which Boanerges is an accurate transliteration.

Mark's interpretation is not necessarily correct.
Mark's interpretation might not be correct. But nonetheless, Mark is the author of Mark, unless we take the position that he was merely translating a prior Aramaic work.
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Old 09-24-2010, 02:57 PM   #76
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Dioskouroi has an etymology youths (kouroi) of Zeus (Dios). Although Zeus is a thunder-god (among other roles) there is no explicit mention of thunder here.

Andrew Criddle
In the introduction to the classic book Toto linked, "Boanerges" , p.xxii, Rendel Harris, states that the Dioskouroi were commonly attributed with control of weather as a result of their affiliation with the sky-god. I don't know what primary references back that up.
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Old 09-24-2010, 08:00 PM   #77
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You were the one speculating to that effect!
How is this speculation, when the writer includes characters from Roman history, Roman customs and traditions, knowledge of Roman laws, etc. ? Did he just guess at all those things and happen to get it right?
Nice shift. You can happily make the difference between principal content and secondary content when dealing with historicity, deciding that you can't depend on characters from Roman history, Roman customs and traditions, knowledge of Roman laws to say that a text is "historical" in content, but when it comes to overtly cultural issues, you easily put such distinctions aside. In fact, you prefer the less direct to the more overt.

If you weighed up the content percentage wise, would you calculate the Roman references to be 5% and the Judean references for most of the rest??


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Old 09-24-2010, 09:58 PM   #78
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If you weighed up the content percentage wise, would you calculate the Roman references to be 5% and the Judean references for most of the rest??


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The 5% could not be written without knowledge of the Greco-Roman culture in which the writer lived, nor could the writer reasonably have written in Greek without a Greek education.
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Old 09-24-2010, 10:35 PM   #79
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If you weighed up the content percentage wise, would you calculate the Roman references to be 5% and the Judean references for most of the rest??
The 5% could not be written without knowledge of the Greco-Roman culture in which the writer lived, nor could the writer reasonably have written in Greek without a Greek education.
I'll wait for you to stop the fudging and admit that you have no justifiable reason to insinuate Jupiter or the Dioscuri into Mark.


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Old 09-24-2010, 10:44 PM   #80
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The 5% could not be written without knowledge of the Greco-Roman culture in which the writer lived, nor could the writer reasonably have written in Greek without a Greek education.
I'll wait for you to stop the fudging and admit that you have no justifiable reason to insinuate Jupiter or the Dioscuri into Mark.


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You'll be waiting quite a while I'm afraid. Nothing you've stated in any way persuades me that this is not a reasonable and ordinary inference.
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