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05-27-2005, 08:29 AM | #61 | |
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05-27-2005, 08:37 AM | #62 | |
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How can one justify the concept of "nationhood" through Judaism when they were a wandering nationless tribe for the most part of their history and other tribes and kings had their own nations earlier? |
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05-27-2005, 08:43 AM | #63 | ||||
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I'd suggest that Paul (and likewise his opponents) were struggling to find guidance on a point that most thought (perhaps including Paul and his opponents, prior to their conversion) would be axiomatic--Messiah comes, Gentiles convert. How wasn't much of an issue--it would simply happen. Quote:
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Regards, Rick Sumner |
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05-27-2005, 08:45 AM | #64 | ||
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Secondly, Paul doubtlessly got the idea because scripture says so. Gen.17.4-5. That's Paul's source on the matter, after all. Quote:
Regards, Rick Sumner |
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05-27-2005, 09:16 AM | #65 | ||
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This is a MAJOR blunder by Paul. He is interpreting 'father of multitudes" to mean "ALL". Quote:
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05-27-2005, 09:27 AM | #66 | |
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Rick Sumner |
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05-27-2005, 09:32 AM | #67 | |
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"not only to the adherents of the law but also to those who share the faith of Abraham, for he is the father of us all," Now how does Abraham become the "the father of us ALL"? |
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05-27-2005, 09:48 AM | #68 | |
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Paul is in direct contradiction of Jesus' own saying, "before Abraham, I am" Why in heaven's name would Christians care about becoming the seed of Abraham or circumcision, if they could simply believe in Christ, who was before Abraham? For Christianity to be solely Judaic, the entirety of the New Testament cannot be understood. Also Christ states "YOUR FATHER ABRAHAM", not my father ( if he was Jewish): Jn. 8:56: "Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day; and he saw it, and was glad" Again, my viewpoint is that the New Testament has multiple influences, not only Judaic and is a Greek attempt at syncretization of the major religions of the time. Christianity was formulated at Antioch, where there was a major Jewish population and a Greek King of Seleucids line, and thus it had to answer primarily to the Jews as long as the Greeks had their "sun God".. |
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05-27-2005, 10:08 AM | #69 | ||||
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And the gospel of John wouldn't be written for another seventy years or so, what it says is really quite irrelevant to understanding Paul. Further, the question of whether or not Christianity is solely Judaic really has no bearing on my post (which was the one you were responding to). I was addressing a specific Pauline position. Quote:
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Regards, Rick Sumner |
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05-27-2005, 10:31 AM | #70 | |
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The point is that the Gospel of John is a part of Christianity just as the Paul's teachings are well after Jesus (we might never know if a Jesus ever existed as a human being or if it's purely myth) Christos is a Greek word which was used for annointing GREEK gods NOT Jewish ones...I wonder why you think the Jewish Paul would be not Jewish enough to call this entire new religion by a Greek title rather than the Jewish title of the "messiach"...? I also wonder why the cross (a non-Jewish symbol for solar worship) was used as well if this were solely a Jewish religion and why this new sun God had similar healing powers as Apollo, the Greek sun God, and of course these stories about Jesus the healer and his death on the cross were in nearly all the Gospels. |
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