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Old 09-26-2006, 02:24 PM   #31
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Originally Posted by spin View Post
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...[trimmed]...
He also indicates that christians may have made up a bit of support (in this passage dealing with christian ferocity -- a ferocity Julian was well aware of):

you slaughtered not only those of us who remained true to the teachings of their fathers, but also men who were as much astray as yourselves, heretics, because they did not wail over the corpse in the same fashion as yourselves. But these are rather your own doings; for nowhere did either Jesus or Paul hand down to you such commands. The reason for this is that they never even hoped that you would one day attain to such power as you have; for they were content if they could delude maidservants and slaves, and through them the women, and men like Cornelius and Sergius. But if you can show me that one of these men is mentioned by the well-known writers of that time,----these events happened in the reign of Tiberius or Claudius,----then you may consider that I speak falsely about all matters.

Julian uses a very standard grammatical device,
and men like Cornelius and Sergius. But if you can show me that one of these men is mentioned by the well-known writers of that time
Notice the repetition of "men" here, this is a type of anaphora which yokes the two references together. Assuming that the underlying Greek is reasonably reflected in the translation, the connection is strengthened by the word "these", so that "these men" is a clear pointer back to previously mentioned men, ie "Cornelius" and "Sergius".

Normally you go back to the last reference anyway to match the backward linkage of a cohesive text, ie here Cornelius and Sergius. To get back to Jesus and Paul, you have to jump over the logical grammatical choice of these two Romans and back to the previous sentence. This doesn't seem justifiable, does it?
Well, it depends upon the reading thereof, IMO.

For example, the 1st sentence tells us nothing about the assignment
of "these men". However the subject of the second sentence is clearly
the two men Jesus and Paul. The subject of the second sentence may
also be consistently read as being these same two men, Jesus and Paul,
and in this instance, to be specific, the hope of these two men. In the
same sentence, after the semi colon, the contentment is of Jesus and
Paul, as is the verb "delude", acting upon the objects of the delusion,
amongst whom are listed Cornelius and Serbius.

The final sentence thus simply refers to the subjects in the first two
sentences, who are Jesus and Paul, is thus another reading of this
section of the text.

On the issue that Amaleq13 raised:

Quote:
If the apparent grammatical connection makes no sense, are we not justified in wondering if it was a mistake by the author?
Another distinct and clear possibility is that (IMO) Cyril did this, in order
that --- for his consistent motive of ameliorating the invectives of
Julian against Jesus ---- for clearly he is charging both Jesus and Paul
of deluding "maidservants and slaves, and through them the women,
and [FURTHER OBJECTS] men like Cornelius and Sergius".

I find that Cyril presents these phrases together in such a manner as to
purposefully make the interpretation thereof obscure, and open to multiple
initial impressions, dependent upon the reading style.


Best wishes,



Pete Brown
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Old 09-26-2006, 03:09 PM   #32
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Given Julian's religious extremism, his nostalgia, and his hatred of Christianity and Christians, his motivation is obvious and hardly scholarly.
How was he an "extremist"?

And this seems too much like the pot calling the kettle black. If anything it was the Xians who were the extremists, violently objecting to all religions but theirs. What else can one say about people who believe that anyone who believes in any religion but theirs deserves nothing less than eternal damnation?

That was very unusual to pagans, who were typically much more tolerant. Worship of one god did not exclude the worship of others; worship of Jupiter Greatest and Best did not exclude worship of Artemis or Dionysus or Isis or Osiris or Mithras or some deified Emperors. And some of them looked down on the Xians with their perpetual doctrinal disputes. Xians weren't even very tolerant of each other!

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So a man who claims that his enemies are filled with wickedness is a scholar and interested in scholarly elicidations of the truth.
Like Xians foaming at the mouth at pagans?

I will concede that he was not exactly a rationalist; he had a hankering after the rather mystical philosophy of Neoplatonism.
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Old 09-26-2006, 03:28 PM   #33
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Originally Posted by mountainman View Post
(details of suppression of pagan religions by the Xian Roman Empire...)

Original Source: Vlasis Rassias, Demolish Them!
Published in Greek, Athens 1994
Does anyone have that book?

I'd like to see primary sources on as many of these assertions as possible; I don't want to wave around such claims unless they can be shown to be well-supported.
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Old 09-26-2006, 03:34 PM   #34
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Does anyone have that book?

I'd like to see primary sources on as many of these assertions as possible; I don't want to wave around such claims unless they can be shown to be well-supported.
I don't know what claims mountainman is making, as he's on my ignore list, but I can assure you that until I put him there nothing he said had any evidence for it at all. Unless he's changed, there's no way that Constantine fabricated the entire early Christian history. Downright implausible.
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Old 09-26-2006, 04:13 PM   #35
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Rassias wrote that book in modern Greek. It has not been translated, but the same summary list of Christian atrocities is found all over the web.

This is on his website, http://rassias.gr/9011.html

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Be it known to all those eager to blindly believe in "miracles", "resurrections" and "peaceful" predominance, but completely unwilling to accept the plain historical reality, that references for the historical facts listed in brief below are properly given in the 5 volume 2nd and enriched edition of the book “Mia… Historia Agapis” (Athens, 2005). Few of them already appear in the greek larger version of this timetable {sic}
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Old 09-26-2006, 04:16 PM   #36
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Note to Loren Petrich: This thread was an attempt to validate Rassias' claims:

Authenticity

although it tended to get off topic and was a bit heated.
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Old 09-26-2006, 04:24 PM   #37
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Originally Posted by Chris Weimer View Post
I don't know what claims mountainman is making, as he's on my ignore list, but I can assure you that until I put him there nothing he said had any evidence for it at all. Unless he's changed, there's no way that Constantine fabricated the entire early Christian history. Downright implausible.
I agree with you there on mountainman's claims of the origin of Xianity -- there is too much pre-Constantine evidence.

But mountainman was referring to some post-Constantine history, in particular what is described in the book Demolish Them!, by Vlasis Rassias, published in Greek, Athens 1994.

It describes what it claims is Xian suppression of the worship of pagan deities and the destruction of pagan temples and documents over the next few centuries after Constantine. I was asking how good that history was; what do our primary sources say about that.
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Old 09-26-2006, 05:17 PM   #38
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This is on his website, http://rassias.gr/9011.html
It plays an instrumental version of REM's "Losing My Religion", and it has English, Spanish, German, and Italian versions of its summary of Xian persecutions of pagans, as well as a more detailed page in Modern Greek.

I ran some bits of the latter through http://babelfish.altavista.com and found:

The page's title: Christian Persecution of the Greeks

The book's title: A History of Love - The History of Christian Domination (epikratisis - babelfish translated it "predominance", but "domination" seems more reasonable in this context)
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Old 09-26-2006, 07:05 PM   #39
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Originally Posted by mountainman View Post
Well, it depends upon the reading thereof, IMO.

For example, the 1st sentence tells us nothing about the assignment
of "these men". However the subject of the second sentence is clearly
the two men Jesus and Paul. The subject of the second sentence may
also be consistently read as being these same two men, Jesus and Paul,
and in this instance, to be specific, the hope of these two men. In the
same sentence, after the semi colon, the contentment is of Jesus and
Paul, as is the verb "delude", acting upon the objects of the delusion,
amongst whom are listed Cornelius and Serbius.

The final sentence thus simply refers to the subjects in the first two
sentences, who are Jesus and Paul, is thus another reading of this
section of the text.

On the issue that Amaleq13 raised:
He wasn't working hard enough with the text. One has no difficulty making sense of it.

(Does "it" refer to "the issue" or to "the text"??)

Quote:
Originally Posted by mountainman
Another distinct and clear possibility is that (IMO) Cyril did this, in order
that --- for his consistent motive of ameliorating the invectives of
Julian against Jesus ---- for clearly he is charging both Jesus and Paul
of deluding "maidservants and slaves, and through them the women,
and [FURTHER OBJECTS] men like Cornelius and Sergius".

I find that Cyril presents these phrases together in such a manner as to
purposefully make the interpretation thereof obscure, and open to multiple
initial impressions, dependent upon the reading style.
Let's go back and read the text again.
But these are rather your own doings; for nowhere did either Jesus or Paul hand down to you such commands. The reason for this is that they never even hoped that you would one day attain to such power as you have; for they were content if they could delude maidservants and slaves, and through them the women, and men like Cornelius and Sergius. But if you can show me that one of these men is mentioned by the well-known writers of that time,----these events happened in the reign of Tiberius or Claudius,----then you may consider that I speak falsely about all matters.
Note the proximity of the two terms in italics. Note the distance from the reference to Jesus and Paul.

Consider this English: "Fred and Bill talked to two men. These men were very tall."

It is normal to consider that "these men" refer to the two men previously mentioned. What's the problem? Do you find it difficult to see that you won't find these men, Cornelius and Sergius, in the literature?


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Old 09-26-2006, 07:19 PM   #40
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How does that explain why discovering a mention of Cornelius and/or Sergius would falsify everything wrote?
It doesn't and the text doesn't say that. He says "you may consider that I speak falsely about all matters", which I understand as saying "forget about what I have said".

Julian is showing that Jesus and Paul didn't attempt to aim high in their convert targets. They converted lowly people. Cornelius and Sergius were nobodys. You won't find them in any of the well-known writers of that time.

In Julian's eyes Jesus and Paul weren't making claims that would lead to events in the political sphere, as had come in Julian's time when pagans were persecuted. It didn't start off as a religion for powerful people and you can't find anyone of note in the early religion.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Amaleq13
If the apparent grammatical connection makes no sense, are we not justified in wondering if it was a mistake by the author?
If it really made no sense. I don't think you've given the text a sufficient chance yet.


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