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Old 10-19-2006, 08:07 AM   #11
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Best to remember that St Jerome went back to the hebrew when he produced his vulgate latin version (@ 400AD) as he considered it more accurate that the LXX (except for Psalms - for that one he didn't use the hebrew).

From wiki:
Quote:
Originally Posted by wiki LXX
When Jerome undertook the revision of the Old Latin translation of the Septuagint, he checked the Septuagint against the Hebrew that was then available. He came to believe that the Hebrew text better testified to Christ than the Septuagint[4]. He broke with church tradition and translated most of the Old Testament of his Vulgate from Hebrew rather than Greek. His choice was severely criticized by his contemporaries.
Additionally, the same wiki article claims that:
Quote:
Originally Posted by wiki LLX
In around 235 AD, Origen, a Christian scholast in Alexandria, completed the Hexapla, a comprehensive comparison of the ancient versions side-by-side in six columns. Much of this work was lost, but several compilations of the fragments are available. In the first column was the contemporary Hebrew, in the second a Greek transliteration of it, then the newer Greek versions each in their own columns. Origen also kept a column for the Old Greek (the Septuagint) and next to it was a critical apparatus combining readings from all the Greek versions with editor's marks indicating to which version each stitch belonged. [2] Perhaps only three copies of the voluminous Hexapla were ever made, but Origen's combined text was copied, eventually without the editing marks, and the older uncombined text of the LXX was neglected. Thus this combined text became the first major Christian recension of the LXX, often called the Hexaplar rescension. In the centuries following Origen, two other major recensions were made by Lucian and Hesychius.
So early christianity was well aware of the differences bewteen the hebrew and the LXX.
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Old 10-19-2006, 09:00 AM   #12
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Best to remember that St Jerome went back to the hebrew when he produced his vulgate latin version (@ 400AD) as he considered it more accurate that the LXX (except for Psalms - for that one he didn't use the hebrew).
Yes, I'm aware of that, but when he did this he still retained many of the errors that had become a part of the tradition already, such as the "virgin birth".

My point is that new translations don't put one "more in touch with Christian tradition", or "Christianity". The fact that a word change comes from the Dead Sea Scrolls or or out of my ass has an equal effect on the "Christian tradition", its still something different than what it has been understood to be by Christians for 2,000 years.
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Old 10-19-2006, 09:14 AM   #13
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The Septuagint is what the writers of the Christian Bible used, they didn't use the Hebrew texts, so going back and putting the Christian texts more in line with the Hebrew today actually misrepresents Christian doctrine and indeed is a form of doing what they accuse the fundies of doing, changing the text to make it fit thier agenda.
Although NT authors frequently quote from the LXX, it is not accurate to say that "they didn't use the Hebrew texts," because there are passages, such as Matthew 2:15/Hosea 11:1 and John 19:37/Zechariah 12:10, that agree with the Hebrew against the LXX.
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