MiddleMan

In Numbers 1:1-50, we are given details of the census conducted following the Israelite exodus. Basically, as I understand it, all the males 20 years and older are included in the count from each of the twelve tribes and the results are thus:

1) 46,500
2) 59,300
3) 45,600
4) 14,660
5) 54,400
6) 57,400
7) 40,500
8) 32,200
9) 35,400
10) 2,760
11) 41,500
12) 53,400

This totals to: 483,620.

But then, in verse 46 it states that all those who were numbered totaled 630,550. Where did the remainder come from? I know they didn't count the Levites, but they could hardly account for the difference!

What am I reading wrong here?

Godless Wonder

The numbers are made up, along with pretty much everything else in the book, by authors without a good grasp of verismilitude.

MiddleMan

Well...I figured that much, but every time I hear a discussion of the exodus the number of people involved always references Exodus (about 600,000) and Numbers. This is used to give the number of MEN but not of women and children. However, the figures from Numbers does NOT add up to 600,000. Is that because the Levites are not included? Seems hard to believe. Or because the 600,000 includes children? But then that would render Exodus (which states that number EXCLUDES women and children) is in conflict? Just WHAT does the census figure in Numbers refer to?

Chris Weimer

6 x 3 = 18 and 5 x 5 = 25 and 25 - 18 = 7 and since Jesus = 7 it's a Messianic prophecy that only Jesus could have fulfilled. :Cheeky: