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Old 01-17-2008, 12:00 PM   #41
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This is two different statements being juxtaposed creating the illusion that the second establishes the first. Paul never met Jesus, true enough. He is contemporary. One might be able to read Paul as having no first hand information from others (I'm not arguing that point one way or the other here), but the facts remain that 1) He is contemporary, and 2) He is evidence.

How good that evidence is is another question, but to suggest that contemporary evidence doesn't exist is false.

Regards,
Rick Sumner
in a court of law its heresay
In a court of law all copies of manuscripts are hearsay. We have extremely few original autographs from antiquity.

History is the art of dealing with hearsay. Hearsay constitutes most of what we have left from antiquity.

Ben.
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Old 01-17-2008, 01:44 PM   #42
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You are not dealing with my statements. Paul may have been contemporary to the reputed era of Jesus, but my claim is that there is no contemporary evidence for the existence of Jesus.
Again, your comments are about the quality of the evidence. That you need to address Paul as a source at all belies your statement: If he wasn't evidence, he wouldn't need to be discussed. He might not be good evidence, but that's another issue.

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Paul states that his gospel came by revelation and specifically adds that it was not taught to him by humans (Gal 1:11f). There is nothing here to be construed as contemporary evidence for the existence of Jesus.
You're robbing Paul entirely of his context. As he makes clear in the proceeding passage, what's at issue with Paul are the questions of circumcision and table fellowship. What the "gospel" refers to is brought home still further by turning back to 1.9 after reading Paul's information on Barnabas. "Even if we. . ." bringing home the point that the "we" here indicates Barnabas, who, as Paul later discusses, appears to have lapsed.

But what is the different gospel Barnabas accepted in Jerusalem? There's no indication that it has anything to do with a Christ, spiritual or otherwise. The different gospel concerns what is required of the Galatian community. Paul is stressing that even if that comes from "an angel from heaven," much less a "super apostle," it is to be rejected.

That has nothing to do with any "gospel" as you're anachronistically using the term, and tells us nothing about what is "evidence" regarding Jesus in Paul's letters, because it has nothing to do with it.

Richard Bauckham had a nice article way back in JSNT 1.2 (1979) exploring, in particular, the Barnabas angle from this passage. But the Barnabas angle notwithstanding, your reading a meaning of "gospel" into Paul that isn't there.

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Rick Sumner
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Old 01-17-2008, 01:44 PM   #43
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in a court of law its heresay
I wasn't aware we were trying a crime.

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Rick Sumner
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Old 01-17-2008, 04:45 PM   #44
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in a court of law its heresay
I wasn't aware we were trying a crime.

Fraudulent misrepresentation of ancient history
using forgery and supreme imperial initiative.
Christianity as a fourth century top-down
emperor cult, which got the inside running
and eliminated the counter-evidence as best
as it could.

See Nestorius' "Bazaar of Heraclites".

Best wishes,



Pete Brown
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Old 01-17-2008, 06:22 PM   #45
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I disagree that 'objective documentation' is a junk term; if I haven't corrected it previously it's because other posters have followed up on rebuttals accurately.
Which posters? I must have missed this.

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We can use 'non apologist sources' if that helps.
What non-biased methodology do you use to determine if someone is an apologist or not?

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I know about the gospels and acts but I simply don't believe accounts of raising the dead, withering fig trees and water walking to be worth mentioning in this day and age
So why are you throwing it all out? Do you discount everything Josephus, Tacitus, Suetonius, and other historians say when they mention the divine? Do you ignore the Holocaust survivor when he says that God helped him get through Auschwitz? Do you ignore the coins which state that Augustus is the son of God?

Tossing out an entire text because it mentions the divine is a very stupid methodology to me.
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Old 01-17-2008, 06:38 PM   #46
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You are not dealing with my statements. Paul may have been contemporary to the reputed era of Jesus, but my claim is that there is no contemporary evidence for the existence of Jesus.
Again, your comments are about the quality of the evidence. That you need to address Paul as a source at all belies your statement: If he wasn't evidence, he wouldn't need to be discussed. He might not be good evidence, but that's another issue.
I guess you'd listen to the nutter who comes into the police station without checking the data before using it. It's not about the quality of evidence at all, but establishing if there is any to start with. You assume your conclusion.

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Paul states that his gospel came by revelation and specifically adds that it was not taught to him by humans (Gal 1:11f). There is nothing here to be construed as contemporary evidence for the existence of Jesus.
You're robbing Paul entirely of his context.
His context, at least regarding Galatians, is differing opinions on messianism. Too bad he didn't find support among the Palestinian messianists.

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As he makes clear in the proceeding passage, what's at issue with Paul are the questions of circumcision and table fellowship.
Just what you'd expect in the conflict between Paul's apparently newfound radicalism and more strongly Jewish traditions held by the Palestinian Jews.

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What the "gospel" refers to is brought home still further by turning back to 1.9 after reading Paul's information on Barnabas. "Even if we. . ." bringing home the point that the "we" here indicates Barnabas, who, as Paul later discusses, appears to have lapsed.

But what is the different gospel Barnabas accepted in Jerusalem? There's no indication that it has anything to do with a Christ, spiritual or otherwise. The different gospel concerns what is required of the Galatian community. Paul is stressing that even if that comes from "an angel from heaven," much less a "super apostle," it is to be rejected.
When you retroject later significance of "gospel" into Paul's writing you may come up with some difficulties. The gospel is the message that Paul disseminated. It included a revelation of Jesus Christ, though none, or few, of the traditional Jewish practices. Barnabas's problem was over praxis, as is clearly stated in 2:11ff.

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That has nothing to do with any "gospel" as you're anachronistically using the term, and tells us nothing about what is "evidence" regarding Jesus in Paul's letters, because it has nothing to do with it.
Anachronism? Ironic use, I'd say.

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Richard Bauckham had a nice article way back in JSNT 1.2 (1979) exploring, in particular, the Barnabas angle from this passage. But the Barnabas angle notwithstanding, your reading a meaning of "gospel" into Paul that isn't there.
Pot looking for kettle.


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Old 01-17-2008, 06:43 PM   #47
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I guess you'd listen to the nutter who comes into the police station without checking the data before using it. It's not about the quality of evidence at all, but establishing if there is any to start with. You assume your conclusion.
That nutter is evidence of something. If a bunch of nutters independently said the same thing, it'd even be good evidence. You're abusing the notion of what evidence is.

Snipped the rest, as there isn't any substance worth correcting from you.
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Old 01-17-2008, 07:37 PM   #48
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in a court of law its heresay
Quote:
Originally Posted by Ben C Smith
In a court of law all copies of manuscripts are hearsay. We have extremely few original autographs from antiquity.

History is the art of dealing with hearsay. Hearsay constitutes most of what we have left from antiquity.

Ben.
But can you cite a legal proceeding, whether civil or criminal, where manuscripts of antiquity were used to determine the historicity of a figure of antiquity?

It is immaterial at this point to consider whether manuscripts are hearsay or not, since there appears to be neither heasray nor history of Jesus of Nazareth from any extant credible non-apologetic writings in the first century.

Philo of Alexandria wrote no anecdotes or hearsay about Jesus of Nazareth.
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Old 01-17-2008, 07:56 PM   #49
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It seems that we really only have a disputed text from Josephus outside the Bible texts so what evidence can we substantiate for the person of Jesus. I can accept that there may have been many apocalyptical prophets but, again, I don't know of any relating evidence that might indicate they were the same person.
:devil2:
Josephus is irrelevant and Tacitus is irrelevant because first they have to prove that Mark is not fiction. If Mark is fiction then Jesus of Nazareth never existed. Matthew, Luke and John are based on Mark and Paul says he never met any Jesus.

There is lots of evidence that Mark is fiction and no evidence that it is not fiction so obviously Jesus of Nazareth never existed.
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Old 01-17-2008, 09:56 PM   #50
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There is lots of evidence that Mark is fiction and no evidence that it is not fiction so obviously Jesus of Nazareth never existed.
But the fiction Jesus is what works for the Christians that lives now so regardless if they had a fiction or something more substantiated back then the fiction is what we have now.

And that fiction works. That is the interesting thing for me. Could it not be a fiction from start. If it works now for us why would it not work for them too back then?

what they did was to take texts from what we name OT and they weaved fiction but named it revelation from God.
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