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Old 04-06-2004, 03:49 PM   #21
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Join Date: Jun 2002
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I’ve thought long and hard about it, and I’m now convinced your reading of Papias is correct, Vinnie. I was going to write out a long post explaining all my reasoning on the subject, but I’ll try to summarize it.

First, my objections to your reading hinged on how bad it would be as an apologetic, but this doesn’t really mean anything. Similarly absurd suggestions today are made by Fundamentalist Christians regarding the Bible (Luke possibly a woman based on the Mary-Joseph genealogy harmonization).

Secondly, and more powerfully, your explanation actually explains the invention of the story in the first place, while my reading didn’t. My reading would leave one guessing as to why these certain details were made up, whereas yours easily explains why those details would be made up.

For now, I would agree that Papias is referring to GMk and that he acts as a terminus ad quem for GMk and possibly both GLk and GMt.

You were right, I was wrong.
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