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Old 07-02-2008, 09:01 AM   #11
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One other item here. How can details about the career of Jesus possibly have started with Justin? Are we forgetting the Marcion had a gospel in his possession just brimming with details about the career of Jesus?

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Old 07-02-2008, 09:27 AM   #12
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One other item here. How can details about the career of Jesus possibly have started with Justin? Are we forgetting the Marcion had a gospel in his possession just brimming with details about the career of Jesus?

Ben.

What did Marcion have brimming in his gospels about the career of Jesus?

Well, you know whatever it was that Marcion had brimming was rejected by the Church! They just couldn't use it. I think it may have been dumped or burnt. It was trash.
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Old 07-02-2008, 09:40 AM   #13
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What did Marcion have brimming in his gospels about the career of Jesus?
See for yourself.

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Old 07-02-2008, 10:31 AM   #14
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What did Marcion have brimming in his gospels about the career of Jesus?
See for yourself.

Ben.
I could not see anything REAL. Marcion's Jesus was AN APPARITION, he had no REAL career.
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Old 07-02-2008, 10:34 AM   #15
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I could not see anything REAL. Marcion's Jesus was AN APPARITION, he had no REAL career.
Where does the Marcionite gospel call Jesus an apparition? Thanks in advance.

Ben.
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Old 07-02-2008, 10:35 AM   #16
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True, but if we don't have it we cannot do anything with it.
You mean, we cannot do this with it?



Or this?

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Originally Posted by gstafleu
...HJD starts proliferating as of 150CE.
Do not these statements presume that the lost literature from before 150 lacked HJ details?
The problem is that we do not have any (or not a lot) of documentation of historical Jesus details (HJD) before 150. The challenge is: explain this. What I was saying is that documentation we do not have cannot be used to provide an explanation. So, you cannot say that we explain this because there actually was a lot of documentation with HJD before 150, but it fell prey to canivory. True, you also cannot say that the missing documents did not mention HJD, it is an unknown. Neither of these things you cannot say, though, can be adduced as evidence for the existence of HJD before 150, and that is the question: given we start seeing so much HJD as 150, what is the evidence of it existing before 150? If there is no existence for HJD before 150, the "Justin did it" hypothesis remains standing.

BTW "Justin did it" does not mean Justin made it all up out of whole cloth. He could have happened onto a thus far not well known stream of tradition--the same stream that produced the gospels and hence Marcion's source--that did contain HJD. Or that narrow stream started to surface concurrently with Justin. Outside that narrow stream, pre 150, there was no HJD (that we know of--and that means we can't adduce it as evidence that there was pre-150 HJD). That would place Paul and many other epistolarians (following Doherty) outside the HJD stream.

So, does this presume that the documents before 150 lacked HJD? No, it simply states that the documents before 150 that we do have (mostly) lack HJD, and that is all we can form our hypothesis on.

Gerard Stafleu
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Old 07-02-2008, 10:58 AM   #17
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There are two problems here.

Firstly, this idea involves a confusion of what has survived to 2008 AD with what existed at the time, and therefore arguing that if we do not have it, then it never existed.

This is not so; 99% of ancient literature is lost.
True, but if we don't have it we cannot do anything with it. Unless there is indirect evidence pointing to the lost content, of course.
Well, we have a fair idea what various bits of it contained. But I agree that it is difficult to use. What we cannot do, however, is argue from silence based on this, since we don't know that it *was* silent.

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Are you saying that we do have a sufficiency of MSs from C2
Do you mean manuscripts? Or texts composed at that time? We have only papyrus fragments of any texts from the second century, you see.

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It seems we have two competing hypotheses as to why HJD starts proliferating as of 150CE...
We have no evidence of any such proliferation. You have reiterated the point to which I objected earlier, I'm afraid.

The remainder of your post doesn't seem to need comment from me!

All the best,

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Old 07-02-2008, 11:05 AM   #18
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The problem is that we do not have any (or not a lot) of documentation of historical Jesus details (HJD) before 150.
The OP stipulates that we do have some details from before 150:

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Originally Posted by Roland, emphasis added
Before that, except for the gospels (which are anonymous and thus, essentially, undateable, and a few comments by Ignatius), the earliest writers seem to talk about Jesus in only the most general of terms (he was born, crucified, died and resurrected).
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What I was saying is that documentation we do not have cannot be used to provide an explanation.
Correct. I agree.

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So, you cannot say that we explain this because there actually was a lot of documentation with HJD before 150, but it fell prey to canivory. True, you also cannot say that the missing documents did not mention HJD, it is an unknown.
Agreed again.

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Neither of these things you cannot say, though, can be adduced as evidence for the existence of HJD before 150, and that is the question: given we start seeing so much HJD as 150, what is the evidence of it existing before 150?
We are back to the some details from the OP. We scan Paul, the epistle of Clement, the epistle of Barnabas, the epistles of Ignatius, Papias, Marcion, and the rest to see what we can find from before 150.

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If there is no existence for HJD before 150, the "Justin did it" hypothesis remains standing.
We have seen that no existence for HJD before 150 is false; therefore, the Justin did it hypothesis topples, at least that version of it that has him pretty much kicking the whole thing off. You agree with this, right?

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BTW "Justin did it" does not mean Justin made it all up out of whole cloth. He could have happened onto a thus far not well known stream of tradition--the same stream that produced the gospels and hence Marcion's source--that did contain HJD.
That is an attractive possibility.

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Or that narrow stream started to surface concurrently with Justin.
We have seen enough to know that this is not the case.

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Outside that narrow stream, pre 150, there was no HJD (that we know of--and that means we can't adduce it as evidence that there was pre-150 HJD).
On your principles outlined above...:

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Originally Posted by gstafleu
What I was saying is that documentation we do not have cannot be used to provide an explanation.
...we are allowed neither to suppose that the missing texts contained such details nor to suppose that they lacked them. We must remain silent. In short, we are not completely certain how narrow the stream was.

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That would place Paul and many other epistolarians (following Doherty) outside the HJD stream.
Where did this come from? This does not follow from anything you have said so far.

I sit here asking myself what the antecedent of the demonstrative pronoun that is in your sentence. The only thing it can be, I think, is this:

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Outside that narrow stream, pre 150, there was no HJD (that we know of...).
So your argument seems to be: There was a narrow stream of Jesus details from before 150; therefore, Paul and many others lie outside the stream.

Something is missing in this argument, and for the life of me I cannot figure out what it is. How do you know that Paul and other early epistle-writers lie outside the stream?

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Old 07-02-2008, 11:43 AM   #19
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I could not see anything REAL. Marcion's Jesus was AN APPARITION, he had no REAL career.
Where does the Marcionite gospel call Jesus an apparition? Thanks in advance.

Ben.
But, what is the Marcionite Gospel?

Tertullian in Against Marcion 4.2
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Macion, as you must know, ascribes NO author to his gospel...
Tertullian in Against Marcion 1.1
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Whatever in times past we have wrought in opposition to Marcion, is from the present moment no longer to be accounted of.....
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Old 07-02-2008, 11:47 AM   #20
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Marcion's Jesus was AN APPARITION, he had no REAL career.
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Originally Posted by Ben C Smith
Where does the Marcionite gospel call Jesus an apparition? Thanks in advance.
Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874
But, what is the Marcionite Gospel?
I am sorry; I must have stuttered. Let me rephrase: Where does the gospel of Marcion say that Jesus was AN APPARITION with no REAL career?

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