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Old 06-11-2009, 07:35 PM   #71
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Don't mind 'ol Joseph, he is just busy with weaving yet another עבת with which to hang himself.
Provide him plenty of material, and he will use it to do the rest.
You don't like tough questions- its against the status quo. Where is the Hebrew gospels where the Jews said yes they were the sons of devils and not a brick shall stand in Jerusalem! Or did all Europeans forget to ask for any proof?
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Old 06-11-2009, 07:40 PM   #72
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Why are you bringing up a "Hebrew gospel"? What does this have to do with Jerome translating the Hebrew OT into Latin?
If the Gospels is said to have been written by Jews - where is the Hebrew Gospels? Would you not ask this if you found a Hebrew document which said all Latin Romans were sons of the Devil and they conspired to kill your lord? - would you not ask why the genocide of over a million Latin Romans occured - and not even mentioned in that document, when it occured in their midst? No sir - you would. So go ahead and make your day - tell me those are not valid questions.
This has nothing to do with Jerome translating Exodus 3:14 from Hebrew into Latin.
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Old 06-12-2009, 12:27 AM   #73
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Don't mind 'ol Joseph, he is just busy with weaving yet another עבת with which to hang himself.
Provide him plenty of material, and he will use it to do the rest.
You don't like tough questions- its against the status quo. Where is the Hebrew gospels where the Jews said yes they were the sons of devils and not a brick shall stand in Jerusalem! Or did all Europeans forget to ask for any proof?
Nah Joseph, ask all the 'tough questions' you can dream up, problem is, that most of yours are only simply -stupid questions- based upon your own megalomaniacal and ignorant perversions of the Biblical texts.
The Bible, that is The Tanaka, This I can respect, what it says, and what it represents to the people of Israel, and to humanity.
Your ignorant and ill-informed perversions of The Bibles contents however, are not worthy of the respect of any rational or honest person,
be they Bible 'believer's OR 'non-believer's.
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Old 06-15-2009, 10:30 PM   #74
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If the Gospels is said to have been written by Jews - where is the Hebrew Gospels? Would you not ask this if you found a Hebrew document which said all Latin Romans were sons of the Devil and they conspired to kill your lord? - would you not ask why the genocide of over a million Latin Romans occured - and not even mentioned in that document, when it occured in their midst? No sir - you would. So go ahead and make your day - tell me those are not valid questions.
This has nothing to do with Jerome translating Exodus 3:14 from Hebrew into Latin.

Obviously it has a bearing - because two totally divergent and contradicting views resulted.
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Old 06-15-2009, 10:33 PM   #75
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You don't like tough questions- its against the status quo. Where is the Hebrew gospels where the Jews said yes they were the sons of devils and not a brick shall stand in Jerusalem! Or did all Europeans forget to ask for any proof?
Nah Joseph, ask all the 'tough questions' you can dream up, .
Its an obvious question - why is it a tough one? Jerome's interpretation cannot be equivalent to the original Hebrew premises - Jerome never followed those premises and is readng from the lens of a the NT - which is back to front.
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Old 06-17-2009, 06:25 AM   #76
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Nah Joseph, ask all the 'tough questions' you can dream up, .
Its an obvious question - why is it a tough one? Jerome's interpretation cannot be equivalent to the original Hebrew premises - Jerome never followed those premises and is readng from the lens of a the NT - which is back to front.
Whoop de do! not a 'tough question' at all to me, as decades ago I figured out that Jerome's (and 'christianity's') religious views were just as full of shit
as yours now are.
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Old 06-17-2009, 06:43 AM   #77
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This has nothing to do with Jerome translating Exodus 3:14 from Hebrew into Latin.

Obviously it has a bearing - because two totally divergent and contradicting views resulted.

Ok. So what is the proper translation of Exodus 3:14 from Hebrew into Latin?
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Old 06-19-2009, 07:02 PM   #78
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Obviously it has a bearing - because two totally divergent and contradicting views resulted.

Ok. So what is the proper translation of Exodus 3:14 from Hebrew into Latin?
My proper understanding is thus:

That the Creator is indefinable and indescribable - unless you can condone a description of the most transcendent thought possible? I put to you that any description is a limiting one, because it uses finite factors to describe the infinite. Even Moses, the most revered human who ever lived, who stood 'presence to presence' - could not look upon the Creator, accordng to the text in the same source. You should factor in the relevant given factors in the same text to answer your question:

'NO MAN SHALL SEE ME [KNOW ME] AND LIVE'
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Old 06-20-2009, 01:53 PM   #79
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Ok. So what is the proper translation of Exodus 3:14 from Hebrew into Latin?
My proper understanding is thus:

That the Creator is indefinable and indescribable - unless you can condone a description of the most transcendent thought possible? I put to you that any description is a limiting one, because it uses finite factors to describe the infinite. Even Moses, the most revered human who ever lived, who stood 'presence to presence' - could not look upon the Creator, accordng to the text in the same source. You should factor in the relevant given factors in the same text to answer your question:

'NO MAN SHALL SEE ME [KNOW ME] AND LIVE'
That's not a translation. That's just wild exegesis. I'm not talking about exegesis, I'm talking about translation from one language to another. What is the proper translation of Exodus 3:14 from Hebrew to Latin?
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Old 06-20-2009, 11:10 PM   #80
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My proper understanding is thus:

That the Creator is indefinable and indescribable - unless you can condone a description of the most transcendent thought possible? I put to you that any description is a limiting one, because it uses finite factors to describe the infinite. Even Moses, the most revered human who ever lived, who stood 'presence to presence' - could not look upon the Creator, accordng to the text in the same source. You should factor in the relevant given factors in the same text to answer your question:

'NO MAN SHALL SEE ME [KNOW ME] AND LIVE'
That's not a translation. That's just wild exegesis. I'm not talking about exegesis, I'm talking about translation from one language to another. What is the proper translation of Exodus 3:14 from Hebrew to Latin?
I cannot say I know its correct translation - there are numerous heady books about this issue. However, I find the common english translation, I AM THAT I AM, quite a good one, at least in its import. I believe the extended translation concludes in 13 attributes of the Creator, given to Moses when he asked this same question, concerning the source of the Creator. These include loving kindness [noted also as a form of giving/imparting], mercy, forebearence, longsuffering and such positive premises of 'giving', and is then conculded in the severe and negative attribute of 'justice' ['But my justice shall not suffer'].

Ultimately, these allign with the 613 laws in the Hebrew bible, which are again advocations of the creator and how the world functions by his will. Moses was clearly not given anything past these factors [origins], nor was anyone else, and this remains humanity's quest today.
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