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Old 11-12-2010, 12:59 AM   #261
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mountainman View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto View Post

From one of your references:

Frontiers of faith: the Christian encounter with Manichaeism in the Acts of Archelaus By Jason BeDuhn, Paul Allan Mirecki, p. 9

Hegemonius makes the telling blunder of having Archelaus refer to "more than three hundred years between Christ and Mani..."

I see no reference in that source to anachronisms.
Follow the footnote at that point.
See below.



NOTES


Frontiers of faith: the Christian encounter with Manichaeism in the Acts of Archelaus
By Jason BeDuhn, Paul Allan Mirecki.

NB: "AA" hereunder refers to "Acts of Achelaus"

Page 9

"The AA can be dated to the first half of the fourth century
since some of its content is made us of by Cyril of Jerusalem
(Catecheses 6.20-35) writing around 350 CE. It was not known
to Eusebius two decades earlier, although that does not rule
out an earlier composition. [13] Hegemonius makes a telling
blunder of having Archelaus refer to "MORE THAN 300 YEARS"
between Christ and Mani (AA 31.7) inadvertently placing his
characters in his own temorale locale in the second quarter
of the fourth century. [14]. We have no othe information on
who Hegemonius was, or when or where he lived.


[13] The argument that the appearance of "homoousios" in AA 36.8-9
marks the text as post-Nicaean (Lieu 1994) is unsound. The term
was not invented at Nicaea ...

[14] Curiously the same anachronistic dating of Mani is repeated
in Ephrem Syrus, Against Mani
: "MANI, WHO THEY SAY IS THE
PARACLETE THAT COMES AFTER 300 YEARS." Ephrem otherwise shows
no knowledge of the AA.





Page 14

Scholarly consensus now solidly takes the position
that the events as described in the AA are fictitious.



Page 22

"While caution should be observed in assuming distinct sources
behind every change of direction within an ancient text, it remains
true that many ancient texts were composed by a process comparable
to building a new automobile out of parts scavenged from older models.
The "Acts of Archelaus" (AA) bears the weld-marks of such a process.

Hegemonius has pieced together an odd assortment of parts - at times
skillfully, at time haphazardly - to yield an apparently effective
polemical tool. By doing so, he attempted to sieze control of an
historical encounter between two faiths, and rewrite it to the decisive
advantage of his own. His work has been preserved as an indicator of
the ultimate success of his venture, which at the same time has largely
swept away the voice of his opponents. For much of subsequent history,
the Manichaeans have only been able to speak as Hegemonius and other
Christian polemicists like him have determined they are to be heard.

Hence the identication of two anachronisms is in the footnote [14]
Curiously the same anachronistic dating of Mani is repeated
in Ephrem Syrus, Against Mani: "MANI, WHO THEY SAY IS THE
PARACLETE THAT COMES AFTER 300 YEARS." Ephrem otherwise shows
no knowledge of the AA.
Quote:
and explain why this provides any support for your thesis
If it was common knowledge in the 4th century when these two authors were writing that Mani in the 3rd century had claimed to be the paraclete of Jesus then they would have written that this claim was made two hundred years after Jesus. However both independent authors appear to have no knowledge of any other claim other than the current claims that they were combating in the 4th century, which appeared after Nicaea, three hundred years after Jesus.

The existence of these anachronisms provides support for the position that it was the post-Nicaean Manichaeans who, in a desperate effort to try and legitimitize the "Holy Canon of Mani", inserted such claims, and asserted such claims, three hundred years after Jesus was supposed to be around. IMO to dismiss these two anachronism as "coincidental mistakes" defies the odds of probability. The logical position is that both authors were simply completely at home with the idea that the claim that Mani was the parclete of Jesus was a fourth century claim, and they are horrified by it.
Hey - good stuff, keep digging - it's interesting.
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Old 11-12-2010, 01:05 AM   #262
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But these two authors did not think that Mani was alive in the fourth century.

A more logical interpretation of these passages is that the writers involved thought that Jesus lived closer to 100 BCE.

Or it is a simple coincidence. It is not that improbable.

I think this subject is exhausted, unless you can come up with something more.
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Old 11-12-2010, 02:59 AM   #263
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
But these two authors did not think that Mani was alive in the fourth century.
I suppose you refer here to Jason BeDuhn, and Paul Allan Mirecki.

Apart from the notion that you most probably do not know anything about these two authors, I think it is imprudent to draw any conclusion about their writing, confronted with an error of 100 years.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
A more logical interpretation of these passages is that the writers involved thought that Jesus lived closer to 100 BCE.
Obviously I am not a master logician, however, I do quarrel with this illogical, utterly simplistic explanation. Why would ANYONE assume that, contrary to every gospel, JC lived closer to 100 BCE. n.b. that is quite different from writing that JC could have lived closer to 100 BCE. There is no justification for throwing out the gospels, in favor of a date one century earlier.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
Or it is a simple coincidence. It is not that improbable.
I am not buying it.

It is exactly just that improbable, in my view.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
I think this subject is exhausted, unless you can come up with something more.
Oh, I am sorry. Toto is tired, we better stop now.

What?

That's it? That's your reply to Pete?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
From one of your references:

Frontiers of faith: the Christian encounter with Manichaeism in the Acts of Archelaus By Jason BeDuhn, Paul Allan Mirecki, p. 9

Hegemonius makes the telling blunder of having Archelaus refer to "more than three hundred years between Christ and Mani..."

I see no reference in that source to anachronisms.

The thread is such a mess that I am not sure which other sources you cited.

It would help if you listed these, and quote exactly what they say about anachronisms, and explain why this provides any support for your thesis.
You challenged mountainman, concurrently disparaging the thread itself, by suggesting that he LIST, and QUOTE, and then, after he engages in what you have demanded, you then ignore him, claiming that the thread is tired?

What he has demonstrated, to my satisfaction, if to no one else's, is that there is a very high probability of post-Nicean modification of Mani's writings, at least within the Roman Empire, but, in view of the Silk Route, my guess is that changes authored in Rome, would eventually wind up in XinJiang.

For those who doubt such a possibility, a short voyage to Nara, Japan should relieve your anxiety: look at and admire the Hōryū Gakumonji, a wooden, Buddhist temple, constructed in the seventh century, based upon Greek architecture...

avi
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Old 11-12-2010, 03:09 AM   #264
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Quote:
Originally Posted by avi View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
But these two authors did not think that Mani was alive in the fourth century.
I suppose you refer here to Jason BeDuhn, and Paul Allan Mirecki.

Apart from the notion that you most probably do not know anything about these two authors, I think it is imprudent to draw any conclusion about their writing, confronted with an error of 100 years.

Obviously I am not a master logician, however, I do quarrel with this illogical, utterly simplistic explanation. Why would ANYONE assume that, contrary to every gospel, JC lived closer to 100 BCE. n.b. that is quite different from writing that JC could have lived closer to 100 BCE. There is no justification for throwing out the gospels, in favor of a date one century earlier.

I am not buying it.

It is exactly just that improbable, in my view.

Oh, I am sorry. Toto is tired, we better stop now.

What?

That's it? That's your reply to Pete?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
From one of your references:

Frontiers of faith: the Christian encounter with Manichaeism in the Acts of Archelaus By Jason BeDuhn, Paul Allan Mirecki, p. 9

Hegemonius makes the telling blunder of having Archelaus refer to "more than three hundred years between Christ and Mani..."

I see no reference in that source to anachronisms.

The thread is such a mess that I am not sure which other sources you cited.

It would help if you listed these, and quote exactly what they say about anachronisms, and explain why this provides any support for your thesis.
You challenged mountainman, concurrently disparaging the thread itself, by suggesting that he LIST, and QUOTE, and then, after he engages in what you have demanded, you then ignore him, claiming that the thread is tired?

What he has demonstrated, to my satisfaction, if to no one else's, is that there is a very high probability of post-Nicean modification of Mani's writings, at least within the Roman Empire, but, in view of the Silk Route, my guess is that changes authored in Rome, would eventually wind up in XinJiang.

For those who doubt such a possibility, a short voyage to Nara, Japan should relieve your anxiety: look at and admire the Hōryū Gakumonji, a wooden, Buddhist temple, constructed in the seventh century, based upon Greek architecture...

avi
and for a tired old thread going nowhere this one sure seems to attract a lot of attention :grin:
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Old 11-12-2010, 06:43 AM   #265
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In long elaborate disputations betwixt adversarial positions, it is common for a simple misunderstanding of the context of an opponents statements, to lead one down the trail of disputing things that were not what was actually intended.
This can be embarrassing to the one making the mistake.
It is to be hoped, that the one whose statement it was that was misunderstood, and perhaps so by, misrepresented with an erronous argument, can rather than making capital of the situation, be polite and considerate in pointing out the mistake.
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Old 11-12-2010, 08:42 AM   #266
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Quote:
Originally Posted by avi View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
But these two authors did not think that Mani was alive in the fourth century.
I suppose you refer here to Jason BeDuhn, and Paul Allan Mirecki....
No. There are 4th century authors, Hegemonius and Ephrem the Syrian, both hostile to Mani, who write that Mani appeared 300 years after Jesus. They must have known that Mani lived in the third century.

Quote:
Obviously I am not a master logician, however, I do quarrel with this illogical, utterly simplistic explanation. Why would ANYONE assume that, contrary to every gospel, JC lived closer to 100 BCE. n.b. that is quite different from writing that JC could have lived closer to 100 BCE. There is no justification for throwing out the gospels, in favor of a date one century earlier.
Google "did Jesus live 100 BC?"

Quote:
It is exactly just that improbable, in my view.
Why?

Consider the possibilities that Hegemonius had read Ephrem the Syrian. or vice versa, or that both relied on a common source that is now lost (which I think would be the most probable), or that some later copyist inserted the same error in both, or that 300 years had some symbolic meaning, or any of the other explanations for textual errors that inventive minds come up with. Why is the most probable explanation that Mani only became known as the Paraclete in the 4th century? That doesn't even make any sense, since both classical authors knew that Mani lived in the third century. They don't write about Mani becoming known as the Paraclete in the fourth century.

Quote:
Oh, I am sorry. Toto is tired, we better stop now.
I'm not tired. I just don't see any progress here.

Quote:
...

What he has demonstrated, to my satisfaction, if to no one else's, is that there is a very high probability of post-Nicean modification of Mani's writings, at least within the Roman Empire, but, in view of the Silk Route, my guess is that changes authored in Rome, would eventually wind up in XinJiang.

For those who doubt such a possibility, a short voyage to Nara, Japan should relieve your anxiety: look at and admire the Hōryū Gakumonji, a wooden, Buddhist temple, constructed in the seventh century, based upon Greek architecture...

avi
There are classical influences all through Indian and East Asian art. That's not the problem.
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Old 11-12-2010, 08:43 AM   #267
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Regarding such things that are believed to have transpired in the 1st through 3rd centuries CE, we have some documentation, most of this documentation shows signs of redaction, revisions, and latter insertions. Further more, the claims made in these documents to not match up with present day archaeological evidence.

So while it is quite understandable and natural to speculate, and to suggest explanations for the content, and possible situations, at present there is no way of determining whether it was Mani's own disciples who were the ones that 'Christianized' their cult figure, or whether Mani himself in, his lifetime making the claim to being "THE Paraclete of Jesus".

Acknowledging what Stephan Huller has had to offer concerning the name (or reverential title 'Mani' - 'THE Comforter') there is the distinct possibility that the living Mani did indeed so claim, and was understood and accepted by his disciples as being The Paraclete, 'THE Comforter' based upon an expectation of arising out of the the Scriptural usages of the ancient word נחמ = 'nacham'.
In the Scriptural and Semitic languages, nacham is an every day 'idiom' one conveying a range of meanings, meanings which in ordinary usage are interpreted by context, and must be understood (or translated) in harmony with what the given context indicates to be the intended thought or interpretation.
However, when such an idiomatic word is employed as a proper personal name, there is no longer any context to limit the range of its intent or meaning.
In other words, the Semitic name 'Nacham' ('Nahum') conveys equally the thought/concept (idiom) of to have or to be -'comfort', or to 'repent', to be 'penitent', or 'regretful', and to have or to be 'compassionate'. Any of these terms may be Capitalised and be used as translations of the idiomatic name.
Thus 'THE Penitent' or 'THE Compassionate' are equally acceptable translations of 'Menachem' ("M'nacham"_ the Mem prefex being the functional equivalent of our English "Which is...")

There is no need to interject an idea that the concept of 'THE Paraclete' was borrowed from, or that it first originated in the teachings and writings of Christianity. 'Jesus' and his cult, was at the least, extraneous and wholly unnecessary for Mani to take on or receive the honorary, the title of being 'THE Comforter' or 'THE Penitent'. Perhaps even well before the nascent religion of 'Christianity' had even became established and recognised.

Of course if the teachings of the Christians and the words of their 'Christ' could be employed to affirm and to further legitimatize the claims of Manichaeism, so much the better, for why resist the promise inherent in the idiom/name when even the greatest Prophet and Teacher of the Christian faith had announced that He would in due time send 'THE Comforter'.

So what have we got for the Manichaeans? The word/idiom 'nacham' was an an ancient and integral component of their language, one that could not be removed, and once pinned upon a particular cult figure would, out of that association, and by linguistic necessity remain so fixed, even in the face of imminent threat, torture, or death.
This would be the cultural functional equivalent asking or forcefully requiring English speaking peoples to expunge the word 'Freedom' and all of its synonyms from our language! And akin to a frontal assault upon Lady 'Liberty'. How would we react or respond in such circumstances?

Me thinks most would willingly lay down their lives, rather than to live under any such tyranny of thought or speech.

Just a few things to think upon.
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Old 11-12-2010, 09:25 AM   #268
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But the Acts of Archelaus provide the context (as well as other texts) of how Mani's claim was developed - the specific Marcionite interpretation of a "Christ predicted by Jesus.". Why would Eusebius or any one of the fourth century conspirators have made this up
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Old 11-12-2010, 11:14 AM   #269
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The integrity of the documents of the "Acts of Archelaus" is very doubtful.

Quote:
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A certain memorable Disputation, which was conducted by a bishop of the name of Archelaus with the heretic Manes, is mentioned by various writers of an early date.[1] What professes to be an account of that Disputation has come down to us in a form mainly Latin, but with parts in Greek. A considerable portion of this Latin version was published by Valesius in his edition of Socrates and Sozomen, and subsequently by others in greater completeness, and with the addition of the Greek fragments.[2] There seems to be a difference among the ancient authorities cited above as to the person who committed these Acts to writing. Epiphanius and Jerome take it to have been Archelaus himself, while Heraclianus, bishop of Chalcedon, represents it to have been a certain person named Hegemonius
it is very evident that the work has come down to us in a decidedly imperfect form
And there are not a few notes of discrepancy and broken connections in the composition itself,[21] [b]which show that the manuscripts must have been defective, or that the Latin translator took great liberties with the Greek text, or that the Greek version itself did not faithfully reproduce the original Syriac
...On the historical character of the work Neander[22] expresses himself thus:[23] “These Acts manifestly contain an ill-connected narrative, savouring in no small degree of the romantic. Although there is some truth at the bottom of it—as, for instance, in the statement of doctrine there is much that wears the appearance of truth, and is confirmed also by its agreement with other representations: still the Greek author seems, from ignorance of Eastern languages and customs, to have introduced a good deal that is untrue, by bringing in and confounding together discordant stories through an uncritical judgment and exaggeration.
http://en.wikisource.org/wiki/ante-N...ductory_Notice

First of all notice that the "Acts of Achelaus" is a Catholic produced, 'edited' and 'adjusted' document. Not a composition proceeding directly from Mani ('Manes') or his followers.

The Acts of Archelaus is an early Catholic Christian anti-Manichaiean fabricated religious polemic.
As such it is extremely biased, fabricating and setting up non-factual imaginary situations, meetings, and 'conversations' upon which to build the strawman theological arguments desired by the Catholic clergy, often purposely and deliberately misrepresenting, ignoring, or obscuring the Manichaeans actual beliefs.

Mani and the Manichaeans did not need 'Jesus' as a 'source of', or any of the NTs Christian religious stories or writings to begin, or to prop up their religion.
Howbeit when 'Christianity' came along, and afforded them the opportunity, as was customary with their beliefs and philosophical outlook, they syncretized and absorbed certain aspects to the service of their own purposes, readily identifying themselves as also being Christians (Chrestians or 'Good men')
This of course incensed the 'orthodox' who in turn branded them as being false Christians, "heretics", 'Christan heretics' that would not obey and submit to the 'orthodox' Christians 'versions', interpretations and rulings.
OFF WITH THEIR HEADS!



.
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Old 11-12-2010, 11:22 AM   #270
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Sheshbazzar View Post
The integrity of the documents of the "Acts of Archelaus" is very doubtful.

...

The Acts of Archelaus is an early Catholic Christian anti- Manichaiean fabricated religious polemic.
As such it is extremely biased, fabricating and setting up non factual situations meetings and 'conversations' upon which to build the strawman theological arguments desired by the Catholic clergy, often purposely and deliberately misrepresenting, ignoring or obscuring the Manichaeans actual beliefs.
All the more reason not to base any conclusions on the claim in the Acts of Archelaus that Mani appeared 300 years after Jesus.

Your own source claims: "in the statement of doctrine there is much that wears the appearance of truth, and is confirmed also by its agreement with other representations." If the AA were our only surviving source on Manichaeism, we would not be justified in drawing any conclusions.
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