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Old 02-27-2012, 04:12 PM   #381
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Tacitus and Suetonius wrote ZERO about Jesus. You very well know that.
The NT Canon is about Jesus not Chrestus.
Did I say Jesus? And the one terminated by Pilate would not be Jesus? And Tacitus and Suetonius did not put Christians during the rule of Nero?
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Old 02-27-2012, 06:39 PM   #382
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Tacitus and Suetonius wrote ZERO about Jesus. You very well know that.
The NT Canon is about Jesus not Chrestus.
Did I say Jesus? And the one terminated by Pilate would not be Jesus? And Tacitus and Suetonius did not put Christians during the rule of Nero?
Not even Church writers of antiquity used Tacitus or Suetonius to claim Jesus did exist or used Tacitus or Suetonius to corroborate the Forgeries in "Antiquities of the Jews".

Pliny the younger Personally knew Tacitus and Suetonius yet he himself did NOT appear to have heard about a character called Jesus or that Christians worshiped.

Origen did NOT use Tacitus or Origen to claim Jesus existed although he used Josephus.

Eusebius used ONLY the forgeries in Josephus and NEVER ever used Tacitus or Suetonius to claim Jesus did exist.

Incredibly, up to the 5th century, NO Church writer or apologetic used Tacitus or Suetonius to claim Jesus existed ONLY the forgeries in Josephus.
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Old 02-27-2012, 07:26 PM   #383
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Not even Church writers of antiquity used Tacitus or Suetonius to claim Jesus did exist
The existence of Jesus was not an issue then. Even critics did not claim Jesus never existed on earth. No Christian writers we know of had to defend the existence of Jesus on earth. However some reacted to Gnostics or Docetists who thought that Jesus was not quite human (even if he looked so). But that's about it.
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Pliny the younger Personally knew Tacitus and Suetonius yet he himself did NOT appear to have heard about a character called Jesus or that Christians worshiped.
The fact Pliny the Younger did not feel he had to tell Trajan what he heard from the Christians he interrogated likely indicates that the Roman elite knew already about Christian beliefs.
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Old 02-27-2012, 07:32 PM   #384
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Pliny is only relevant if you rely on Giacondo, a biased 15th century church source since he discovered that alleged letter.
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Old 02-27-2012, 10:18 PM   #385
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Incredibly, up to the 5th century, NO Church writer or apologetic used Tacitus or Suetonius to claim Jesus existed ONLY the forgeries in Josephus.
Who was arguing he didn't? For example, Origen attacks Celsus for alleging Jesus was born because his mother had sex with a soldier, not because Celsus argued he didn't exist.
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Old 02-27-2012, 10:57 PM   #386
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The existence of Jesus was not an issue then. Even critics did not claim Jesus never existed on earth. No Christian writers we know of had to defend the existence of Jesus on earth. However some reacted to Gnostics or Docetists who thought that Jesus was not quite human (even if he looked so). But that's about it.
Again, you are dead wrong. Even Christians did NOT know if Jesus did actually exist.

The existence of Jesus with human flesh was a FUNDAMENTAL problem for Christians.

Examine a book called "On the Flesh of Christ" attributed to Tertullian.

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Let us examine our Lord's bodily substance, for about His spiritual nature all are agreed.
It is His flesh that is in question.

Its verity and quality are the points in dispute.

Did it ever exist?


Whence was it derived?

And of what kind was it?
It is completely erroneous that the existence of Jesus in the flesh was not an issue.

And now, in the same book the nature of Jesus is described.

On the Flesh of Christ
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Now, that we may give a simpler answer, it was not fit that the Son of God should be born of a human father's seed, lest, if He were wholly the Son of a man, He should fail to be also the Son of God, and have nothing more than “a Solomon” or “a Jonas,” — as Ebion thought we ought to believe concerning Him.

In order, therefore, that He who was already the Son of God— of God the Father's seed, that is to say, the Spirit— might also be the Son of man, He only wanted to assume flesh, of the flesh of man without the seed of a man; for the seed of a man was unnecessary for One who had the seed of God.

As, then, before His birth of the virgin, He was able to have God for His Father without a human mother, so likewise, after He was born of the virgin, He was able to have a woman for His mother without a human father...
The Jesus of the Church was a MYTH, the son of God WITHOUT a human father.


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Pliny the younger Personally knew Tacitus and Suetonius yet he himself did NOT appear to have heard about a character called Jesus or that Christians worshiped.
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Originally Posted by Mullerb
The fact Pliny the Younger did not feel he had to tell Trajan what he heard from the Christians he interrogated likely indicates that the Roman elite knew already about Christian beliefs.
You really don't know that Pliny told Trajan that he TORTURED some of the Christians to find out what they believed.

You show an extremely limited knowledge of the Pliny letter.
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Old 02-28-2012, 08:20 AM   #387
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to aa,
Your quote from Tertullian does not say Jesus did not look like a man on earth ("He only wanted to assume flesh, of the flesh of man without the seed of a man;" AND "after He was born of the virgin, He was able to have a woman for His mother" ). The only difference is that the tiny male seed did not come from a man. That's it.

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You really don't know that Pliny told Trajan that he TORTURED some of the Christians to find out what they believed.
Pliny also wrote he interrogated ex-Christians, who left Christianity years ago, who did not need to be tortured to tell all about Christian stuff: "Others named by the informer declared that they were Christians, but then denied it, asserting that they had been but had ceased to be, some three years before, others many years, some as much as twenty-five years."
Actually, it is what these ex-Christians said to Pliny which is communicated, with some details, to Trajan. From the tortured two deaconesses, Pliny got only "nothing else but depraved, excessive superstition" which Pliny did not feel he had to explain to Trajan.
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Old 02-28-2012, 09:00 AM   #388
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See?

According to Paul the “holy people” could not rise before Jesus. So someone tweaked Matthew.

Now here’s the thing: If Paul pre-dates Matthew then why did Matthew make that mistake?

But if Matthew pre-dates Paul then it all makes sense – including the gloss.

Do you understand?
Matthew made that “mistake” because he didn’t know Paul’s writings, or perhaps didn’t care what Paul thought. Your unsupported assumption that he did has led you down the garden path—or maybe it’s the yellow brick road.
How does your possibility that Matthew didn’t know Paul’s writings counter the claim that Paul post-dates Matthew? It looks to me like the possibility that Matthew didn’t know Paul’s writings supports the claim that Paul post-dates Matthew because it explains why Matthew didn’t know Paul’s writings. :wave:

Right?

And how can you be sure that your unsupported assumption that Matthew didn’t care hasn’t led you down the yellow brick road? :wave:

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It is quite possible that the “after the resurrection” is a later gloss, maybe even to align with Paul.
The passage in Tatian’s Diatessaron demands an explanation. And that Matthew is redacted satisfies that demand. In Matthew the “holy people” rise from their graves after Jesus’ resurrection – which is absurd because if that were original then the centurion could not have been awed by it. Now the Diatessaron doesn’t have that problem. I think it is very reasonable to consider the possibility that Matthew was redacted.

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But that proves absolutely nothing about the order in which Matthew and Paul were written, and does not of itself permit you to declare Paul a “fiction” which was concocted later than the Gospels.
But you are making the same mistake the amateurs make: You are looking for a smoking gun. You are too busy looking for a single item of ‘proof’ and failing to recognize an item of indirect evidence.

Will you admit that a collection of indirect evidence can accumulate and become corroborating evidence? (Y/N)
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Old 02-28-2012, 09:56 AM   #389
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Originally Posted by Bingo the Clown-O View Post
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post

Matthew made that “mistake” because he didn’t know Paul’s writings, or perhaps didn’t care what Paul thought. Your unsupported assumption that he did has led you down the garden path—or maybe it’s the yellow brick road.
How does your possibility that Matthew didn’t know Paul’s writings counter the claim that Paul post-dates Matthew? It looks to me like the possibility that Matthew didn’t know Paul’s writings supports the claim that Paul post-dates Matthew because it explains why Matthew didn’t know Paul’s writings. :wave:

Right?

And how can you be sure that your unsupported assumption that Matthew didn’t care hasn’t led you down the yellow brick road? :wave:


The passage in Tatian’s Diatessaron demands an explanation. And that Matthew is redacted satisfies that demand. In Matthew the “holy people” rise from their graves after Jesus’ resurrection – which is absurd because if that were original then the centurion could not have been awed by it. Now the Diatessaron doesn’t have that problem. I think it is very reasonable to consider the possibility that Matthew was redacted.

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But that proves absolutely nothing about the order in which Matthew and Paul were written, and does not of itself permit you to declare Paul a “fiction” which was concocted later than the Gospels.
But you are making the same mistake the amateurs make: You are looking for a smoking gun. You are too busy looking for a single item of ‘proof’ and failing to recognize an item of indirect evidence.

Will you admit that a collection of indirect evidence can accumulate and become corroborating evidence? (Y/N)
I haven't "assumed" anything. I was offering likely explanations for your observations other than your claim that the situation between Matthew and Paul lets us "know" (your word) that Paul is a fiction and that the Paulines were written after Matthew. To make such a claim is totally unfounded and I was pointing that out. If you want to water that down to regarding it as "indirect evidence" even that is overstating the case, but at least you've backed away from your pontification and your own claims about having a smoking gun which bestows certain knowledge. At best it's "circumstantial evidence" and aside from being weak, there is as much if not more of that sort of thing on the pro-Paul side to negate any "accumulation" you may think you have.

Incidentally, the Matthean text does not say that the centurion was awed by the rising of the dead from their graves. That could hardly have been in Matthew's mind, since those graves were not likely regarded as within sight of the Calvary hill, nor would the corpses have wandered onto the site within minutes of Jesus' death. Matthew has simply structured his passage in an awkward sequence, but he does take the trouble to point out that the basic thing witnessed by the centurion which prompted his reaction was "the earthquake" and not the rising of the dead. Furthermore, I have no objection to assuming the possibility that the Diatessaron represents a redaction over Matthew to try to eliminate his ambiguity. But this does nothing to support your claim that Matthew has to predate Paul.

Perhaps you should return to the circus, Bingo. (And you can take your little smilies with you, as well as your smug "See?"s and "Understand now?"s.)

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Old 02-28-2012, 12:37 PM   #390
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GLuke and Acts were written by a Roman woman from the Roman colony of Philippi in Macedonia around 85-90...
The idea that Luke was written by a woman faces a big grammatical challenge in Luke 1:3. In Greek, the participle in 'having investigated' (parēkolouthēkoti) has a masculine form.

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