judge

No I meant after

Doctor X

. . . whereas in Lk-Acts Judas "explodes." Granted, having your guts spew out can often be mistaken for hanging. . . .

--J.D.

Mageth

So they brought Judas the Corpse with them to meet Jesus? Perhaps they thought he'd raise him from the dead....

I can see the movie now: Weekend at Judas'

judge

Try substititing the word father for the word husband in Matthew 1:16


16and Jacob the father of Joseph, the FATHER of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.

All the contradiction then vanish.

The aramaic version reads Father (gawra) for this verse but husband (baala) in verse 19.

Mageth

And look at these several translations of Matthew 27:5. All say Judas either hanged himself or strangled himself. None translate the verse as him hanging his head in shame.

Hangin' around

judge

The word translated "hanged himself" in the KJV is apanchomai from
the Greek word apancho. It is used only once in the NT. However in
classical literature it means "to strangle" or "to choke" and is used
figuratively to mean to choke with anger or grief.
Henry George Liddell and Robert Scott, A Greek-English Lexicon, rev. by
Henry S Johnes (1843; 9th ed., Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1940), p.174.

Note also that the following texts have apeuchomai which means "to wish a thing away"
(MSS 803, 875, 983, 1415, 1608, 2521, and 2539).

and that One manuscript has the
word apopnigo, which is also used figuratively "to choke with vexation
or rage" (MS 273).
These of course are all different translations of the aramaic

Doctor X

Very good evidence that the aramaic is secondary--a correction of the obvious contradiction between Mt and Lk. Genealogies did not flow through women.

Next. . . .

--J.D.

Mageth

Originally posted by judge
Try substititing the word father for the word husband in Matthew 1:16

So that's the trick to resolving contradictions, huh? Freely substitute meanings or words to fit the occasion?

16and Jacob the father of Joseph, the FATHER of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.

All the contradiction then vanish.

The aramaic version reads Father (gawra) for this verse but husband (baala) in verse 19.

The Greek uses the same word (aner) in both verses.

And it's odd to note that this supposed translation from the Aramaic uses "husband" in v. 16.

Mageth

There is absolutely no indication that Matthew used the term figuratively, and there is absolutely no compelling reason to interpret it that way, or to assume Matthew used it that way (other than as an attempt to reconcile the contradictions). My point still stands.

judge

Here is an article from another Aramaic speaker his points will need to be addressed.http://www.peshitta.org/bethgazza/Gabra.htm

Abstract: In this article an attempt is made to throw some light on 0rbg in relation to the varied usage of the term in Classical and Contemporary Aramaic, with particular attention paid to the impact on the traditional understanding of the lineage of Christ as recorded in the Gospels.