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|  01-16-2013, 02:07 PM | #51 | 
| Regular Member Join Date: Dec 2007 Location: Primary residence in New York State 
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			The author of the Acts of the Apostles tried his best to minimze the differences between Paul and the James faction, although it is unlikely Paul or the James Jerusalem church ever collaborated together in any way (even if either group actually existed).  They were too far apart to even talk to one another.  But Acts creates the false impression that they did.  For more on this see "How Jesus Became Christian" by Barrie Wilson.
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|  01-16-2013, 02:24 PM | #52 | ||
| Veteran Member Join Date: Feb 2012 Location: Auburn ca 
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 One doesnt need to go to that far away from Judaism for the movement of christianities influences. The OT covers most of what we see. Christianity is nothing more then a sect of Hellenistic Judaism. God-Fearers and Gate Proselytes had been worshipping Judaism for centuries but would not fully convert. The rift between Judaism and these people started long before Jesus was even in the picture. Thi ssect had been growing for quite some time. And Paul states those were his targets and exactly who he took his message to. Pauls movement was never intended for Jews nor did he even try. | ||
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|  01-16-2013, 02:40 PM | #53 | |||
| Regular Member Join Date: Dec 2007 Location: Primary residence in New York State 
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|  01-16-2013, 03:01 PM | #54 | |
| Veteran Member Join Date: Jun 2010 Location: seattle, wa 
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 The ideas may have been influenced by Mithraism or this or that cultus but how do we know anything when the evidence is so hard to find. | |
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|  01-16-2013, 07:38 PM | #55 | ||||||
| Veteran Member Join Date: Sep 2003 Location: On the path of knowledge 
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 This terms first known appearance is in the writings of St. Ignatius!!! (whenever these were really composed) And by then it certainly no longer was the same religion. It had became the religion that John describes in Revelations 17. Quote: 
 With those Gentile specific promises in place there was NO religious reason for any Gentile to ever convert to being a Jew. -Or for any learned and righteous Jew to ever wish for such a thing, because his reward in the Age to Come would be to hold rule over such Gentile believers. Thus it was better to maintain and protect Gentiles as being Gentiles, rather than to circumcise them and turn them into Jews. Some Jews such as Paul understood this. Quote: 
 By Law gentiles (God-Fearers and Gate Proselytes) could not eat of the Paska seder (Passover Supper) thus the compromise of the introduction of 'The Lords supper' in its place, for the sake of gentile believers without the Jewish traditional dishes and rituals. The Jews were very touchy about uncircumcised gentiles wearing Jewish clothing or doing 'Jewish' things, with keeping The Passover being right at the very top of that list.."For no uncircumcised person shall eat thereof" (Ex 12:45 & 48) All right for the gentiles to worship The Holy One, but absolutely NOT to eat of the Jews Passover seder. Quote: 
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|  01-16-2013, 09:49 PM | #56 | ||
| Junior Member Join Date: Jan 2013 Location: Houston, in body only 
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 1) Homer Simpson is a historical person 2) Homer Simpson is not an historical person. You are quite amazing aa, in that you repeatedly fail to see the issue. 1) this are not arguments; they are premises. 2) the NEXT stage is to question the asumptions and predispossitions inherint in your premises. --- which you continuously fail to see. You are like a man arguing that the sun rises because he can literally see the EVIDENCE as he stands on the horizon; but he fails to question his own assumptions, predispossitions, and biases. Woe to you... | ||
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|  01-16-2013, 09:55 PM | #57 | ||
| Junior Member Join Date: Jan 2013 Location: Houston, in body only 
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 Stephen, you initial OP I'd agree with. But you skirt the more thorny issue. If by Christianity you mean the religion that formed, was forming, in the 2nd c. and divorced itself from Judaism, fine. But I doubt Jesus Aramaic speaking followers would have agreed. There is enough historical context (Josephus, DSS) to hypothesis that Jesus was viewed as a messaih (i.e., another messianic claimant), but then we as 21 st century readers MUST understand what belief in Jesus as the JEwish messiah meant to Aramaic Palestinan Jews of the 1st century. | ||
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|  01-16-2013, 10:10 PM | #58 | |
| Veteran Member Join Date: Jun 2010 Location: seattle, wa 
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|  01-17-2013, 11:56 AM | #59 | ||
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 Yes but you need to clarify "only after his death" During his life, it is not the case. In general, the gospels only deal with the last week of his life, because they never knew anything about his mortal life. Quote: 
 True. | ||
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