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 Andrew Criddle  | 
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		#22 | ||
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 no credible historians states mythology or cultural influences were not used, as its obvious they were, they have to be used. it would be the same for any culture describing events they were not witness to. Different cultures and authors have different spins  | 
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		#23 | 
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			But this is different.  How on earth can we accept that the entire description of what happened during the Passion narrative is contrived?  I remember reading Bob Price talk about the event being a Saturnilia.  This blows that theory out of the water.  What is left of reality?  It is also important to note that the Muslims vehemently deny that Jesus was even crucified.  A similar opinion is acknowledged in pre-Islamic Semitic Christianity.   
		
		
		
		
		
		
		
	There is another important corollary for Marcionophiles to notice. Paul's reference to this triumphal march necessarily means he was aware of the written gospel. This opinion is shared by Marcionites and Clement of Alexandria. If Paul is aware of the made up literary contrivance then that means our inherited understanding has to be revisited.  | 
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		#24 | |
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			Clement's 'mystical' explanation of the crown of thorns: 
		
		
		
		
		
		
		
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		#25 | 
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			Another interesting fact is that I don't see ANY Patristic references to this doctrine outside of Clement Paedagogue (partially cited above), Athanasius and a few others.  This suggests either (a) it was totally unimportant or conversely (b) ABSOLUTELY significant.  I think the latter.
		 
		
		
		
		
		
		
		
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		#26 | ||
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		#27 | 
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			Another point to consider.  We all know (I hope) that the Marcionites did not have Jesus 'triumphantly' entering Jerusalem as in the canonical gospels.  Were these implausible stories about Jesus opening proclaiming himself to be the messiah a reaction against the ACTUAL triumphal march in the Passion?  In other words, did the orthodox have to pretend that Jesus was saying X (= i.e. I am he) in order to avoid the implications of the original triumphal march (= secret doctrine)?   I think so.
		 
		
		
		
		
		
		
		
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		#28 | |
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		#29 | 
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			Well I guess the question is - what were the implications of Jesus being dressed up and crowned and saluted by the soldiers?  Schmidt says it was to show him as the true king before Caesar.  Yet was the Emperor considered a 'king'?  I know Julius Caesar rejected the title and there was deep hostility to the term in the Republican period.  It was actually a crime to try and revive the monarchy. 
		
		
		
		
		
		
		
	There is the line in John of course: From then on, Pilate tried to set Jesus free, but the Jewish leaders kept shouting, “If you let this man go, you are no friend of Caesar. Anyone who claims to be a king opposes Caesar.” 13 When Pilate heard this, he brought Jesus out and sat down on the judge’s seat at a place known as the Stone Pavement (which in Aramaic is Gabbatha). 14 It was the day of Preparation of the Passover; it was about noon. “Here is your king,” Pilate said to the Jews. 15 But they shouted, “Take him away! Take him away! Crucify him!” “Shall I crucify your king?” Pilate asked. “We have no king but Caesar,” the chief priests answered. 16 Finally Pilate handed him over to them to be crucified. I am not sure if the Greek is properly translated into English. οὐκ ἔχομεν βασιλέα εἰ μὴ Καίσαρα = not we have a king if not Caesar. You could argue it should be read we don't have a king, only Caesar.  | 
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		#30 | 
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			There is irony here, because one of the Passover prayers of the Jews, fresh in the mind, acknowledged 'no king but God'. From John's pov, some Jews preferred anyone but God; even the detested, extorting, invader Gentile 'dogs'.
		 
		
		
		
		
		
		
		
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