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Old 10-12-2011, 12:56 AM   #11
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.... This is in addition to Acts (which although unreliable, rarely gets blanket dismissal from any serious academic, historian or scholar, that I know of).
This is a rather breath taking statement. Which serious academics have you read? Richard Pervo seems to dismiss the reliability of the historical content of Acts.

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...

Anyhows, It appears there was a Jewish community there. Why wouldn't Christianity have reached Rome?
The Jews had been in existence for centuries. Christianity had just been invented.
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Old 10-12-2011, 04:19 AM   #12
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Originally Posted by archibald View Post
.... This is in addition to Acts (which although unreliable, rarely gets blanket dismissal from any serious academic, historian or scholar, that I know of).
This is a rather breath taking statement. Which serious academics have you read? Richard Pervo seems to dismiss the reliability of the historical content of Acts.
Calm down Toto. Count to ten. Reread the post.

'Dismissing the reliability' is obviously not at all uncommon.

If Pervo (what a fab surname) goes as far as suggesting there is no history at all in Acts (or more to the point that it was meant as fiction), he would, I think, still be rare, or at least in a very small minority, as I understand it. I'm not even sure he excludes the possibility1, since I understand that he thinks Luke used Josephus as a source. This appears to be one of his reasons for dating Acts to the start of the 2nd C.2

You may now breathe easy again.

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The Jews had been in existence for centuries. Christianity had just been invented.
All I was saying is that Rome was the capital city and all roads (and busy sea routes) led there. I was asking the question, why wouldn't some Christians have reached Rome after 20 years, perhaps via Jewish connections? But what I would actually like is some evidence that it hadn't or that Paul wasn't writing to there, but to somewhere else. I accept these things are possible, and can be speculated.

Wouldn't it be the more objective order of approach to first note that the evidences appear to say 'Christians in Rome', and then ask what evidence there is to the contrary?

1. From an interview with Richard Pervo:

'In 1987 Profit with Delight compared Acts with historical novels, but did not press the identification. This claim is sophistry: Ancient novels are romances. Acts is not a love story. Therefore Acts is not a novel. No one, to my knowledge, has called Acts a romantic novel. (Interaction with romantic novels is as early as the Acts of Paul). The issue has been the range of comparison. Does one stop at top shelf, or also look lower? The objective has been to read Acts in terms of popular literature. One may call it “apologetic history,” “popular narrative,” or whatever. “Historical novel” is acceptable. Acts is more like Alexander Romance and Artapanus than Thucydides or Polybius. (Both Greg Sterling and Richard Pervo point to Artapanus as a major model for comparison.)

The objections to viewing Acts as a specimen of historiography are major. This is a separate question from historical value (not handled aptly in Profit with Delight, which assumed, sometimes argued, historical problems as a means for urging wider generic exploration.) Acts is best viewed as a response to contemporary issues rather than as an attempt to extract historical data from various scraps of tradition.'


http://euangelizomai.blogspot.com/20...o-re-acts.html




2. Interview here: http://www.westarinstitute.org/Polebridge/mystery.html


Incidentally, it may also be worth generally adding to Tacitus and Suetonius that Pliny the Younger was (according to his letters to Trajan) sending Christians to Rome for trial (Roman converts) by around 100-110AD.
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Old 10-12-2011, 04:35 AM   #13
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[8] First, I thank my God through Jesus Christ for all of you, because your faith is proclaimed in all the world.

What am I missing?
Not a lot, perhaps. There doesn't seem to be much in the list to indicate Rome.

The only one I might consider as any way even half decent is the one above, 'proclaimed in all the world'. This might be seen as meaning all the 'known' world, which would imply including Rome, which, for instance, was, I have read, thought to have been referred to as 'earth's remotest end' in the Psalms of Solomen.

As for the rest, I would have to hear why he thinks they do. On the face of it, they don't seem to say enough.

It might be worth adding that 2 Timothy also refers to Rome, though was this Paul writing? Some say yes, but it's not part of the consensus. Who knows? It was certainly written by someone, and if that someone wasn't Paul, or Luke, then it was someone else (an anonymous follower, after his death?) who had heard of Paul in connection with Rome. Doesn't make it true, obviously.

Intrestingly, even Pervo, whom Toto cited, has said that 'everyone knew that Paul was a great Roman martyr'.1 He suggests that when the epistles (including this one) discuss how Paul anticipates his death, this is a revisionist account of something (Paul's death as a blow) which may have been difficult to accomodate in an idealization of Paul, for a Paulite like Luke, in Acts. Of course, when Pervo says 'everybody knew', he probably means everybody knew the story, not everbody knew it for a fact. This was not an uncommon standard (including heard stories in one's accounts). There is no doubt that even if Luke saw himself as an historian (which it appears he definitely did) he would not be considered a reliable historian by today's standards. Too much bias and unchecked sources and revisionism. 'Church history' of this sort was not history. It was 'winner's version'. This is a common mess for ancient historians to wade through, in many, many ancient texts.

Richard Carrier goes as far as to say2 'He (Luke) may well be an accurate historian, but that does not make him a critical historian. Only content like that of Suetonius (previously discussed in the chapter) can identify a critical historian from a merely accurate one. Still, the quality of Luke as a historian need not be denied here........that does not mean his information on private matters transmitted solely by hearsay through an unknown intermediarys was good, or that he did not import his own assumptions...'

(My brackets)




1. In the second interview linked to in my previous post.
2. 'Not the Impossible Faith', page 185
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Old 10-12-2011, 06:28 AM   #14
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Default Romans was Originally addressed to the Thessalonikians

Hi Andrewcriddle,

Acts 19:21 does tell us exactly whom the Letters to the Romans was originally written for:

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Now after these things were finished, Paul purposed in the Spirit to go to Jerusalem after he had passed through Macedonia and Achaia, saying, “After I have been there, I must also see Rome.” 22And having sent into Macedonia two of those who ministered to him, Timothy and Erastus, he himself stayed in Asia for a while.
Compare to Letter to the Thessalonians:

1Paul and Silvanus and Timothy,
To the church of the Thessalonians in God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ: Grace to you and peace.

Quote:
2We give thanks to God always for all of you, making mention of you in our prayers; 3constantly bearing in mind your work of faith and labor of love and steadfastness of hope in our Lord Jesus Christ in the presence of our God and Father, 4knowing, brethren beloved by God, His choice of you; 5for our gospel did not come to you in word only, but also in power and in the Holy Spirit and with full conviction; just as you know what kind of men we proved to be among you for your sake. 6You also became imitators of us and of the Lord, having received the word in much tribulation with the joy of the Holy Spirit, 7so that you became an example to all the believers in Macedonia and in Achaia. 8For the word of the Lord has sounded forth from you, not only in Macedonia and Achaia, but also in every place your faith toward God has gone forth, so that we have no need to say anything
Logically, if one goes from Macedonia to Achaia, one has to pass back through Thessaloniki in order to get to Jerusalem. The sentence after he had passed through Macedonia and Achaia[/B], saying, “After I have been there, I must also see Rome.” makes no sense as it is now, but it would make perfect sense reading after he had passed through Macedonia and Achaia[/B], saying, “After I have been there, I must also see Thessaloniki.”

The letter to the Thessalonikians tells us that he visited Thessaloniki before visiting Macedonia and Achaia. It is logical to assume that the source of Acts had Thessalonki as the intermediary place before he goes to Jerusalem. Rome is completely in the opposite direction, far to the West and makes no sense as a destination if one is traveling from Corinth in Achaia back to Jerusalem.

In the current Thessalonikians 1 and 2, Paul has already visited Thessaloniki and Corinth. The letter now called "Romans" was written to explain how Paul got to Thessaloniki.

In Thessalinikians 1, Paul says "after we had already suffered and been mistreated in Philippi, as you know, we had the boldness in our God to speak to you the gospel of God amid much opposition."

But note this in the current ending to Romans:

Quote:
15:22For this reason I have often been prevented from coming to you; 23but now, with no further place for me in these regions, and since I have had for many years a longing to come to you 24whenever I go to Spain—for I hope to see you in passing, and to be helped on my way there by you, when I have first enjoyed your company for a while— 25but now, I am going to Jerusalem serving the saints. 26For Macedonia and Achaia have been pleased to make a contribution for the poor among the saints in Jerusalem. 27Yes, they were pleased to do so, and they are indebted to them.
The ending of Romans was actually part of the ending of Thessalonikians 2.

We may take it that there was originally two letters to the Thessalonikians - the first a "pre-visiting" letter sent from Philippi and the second a "I'm coming back" letter. The current edition of Romans takes part of the first pre-visiting letter for its beginning and part of the second "I'm coming back" letter for its ending.

The current two letters of Thessalonikians are both from the original second "I'm coming back" letter.

Whoever created Romans must have known that people expected two Thessalonikian letters. Therefore, when he changed the first "pre-visiting" letter to "Romans," he must have also split the second "I'm coming back" Thessalonikian letter into two letters.

Warmly,

Jay Raskin

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Romans 16:22For this reason I have often been prevented from coming to you; 23but now, with no further place for me in these regions, and since I have had for many years a longing to come to you 24whenever I go to Spain—for I hope to see you in passing, and to be helped on my way there by you, when I have first enjoyed your company for a while— 25but now, I am going to Jerusalem serving the saints. 26For Macedonia and Achaia have been pleased to make a contribution for the poor among the saints in Jerusalem. 27Yes, they were pleased to do so, and they are indebted to them. For if the Gentiles have shared in their spiritual things, they are indebted to minister to them also in material things. 28Therefore, when I have finished this, and have put my seal on this fruit of theirs, I will go on by way of you to Spain. 29I know that when I come to you, I will come in the fullness of the blessing of Christ.
Paul is on his way to Jerusalem after visiting Macedonia and Achaia and will stop off at Thessaloniki to collect some money. The word Spain is substituted for the word Phillipi which was in the original text.

In the Philippians, Paul confirms that he preached in Philippi before going to Thessaloniki:

Quote:
15You yourselves also know, Philippians, that at the first preaching of the gospel, after I left Macedonia, no church shared with me in the matter of giving and receiving but you alone; 16for even in Thessalonica you sent a gift more than once for my needs.




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Originally Posted by andrewcriddle View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by yalla View Post
Somewhere in a previous recent thread [which I cannot now find] someone cast doubt on the common understanding that Paul's epistle to the Romans was actually written to the Romans and that that title was a later addition by whoever.

At the time I was reminded about the discussion by FF Bruce in his 'Commentary on Romans' (or via: amazon.co.uk) Tyndale Press 1963, where he looks at the manuscript history of Romans and notes that:
-the references to Rome contained in the text at 1.7 and 1.15 are missing in some mss [he names them] and were not known to Origen nor Ambrosiaster thus suggesting that the epistle may not have been originally addressed to christians in Rome
-but he then states that the textual context ensures that Rome was intended as " .. no other place could stand in the place of 'Rome' ...because the context [1.8-15] refers to Rome and Rome only". Page 30.

Here is the portion of text [from the RSV] to which he refers, with the omitted references to Rome replaced by asterisks :

7] To all God's beloved *****, who are called to be saints:
Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
[8] First, I thank my God through Jesus Christ for all of you, because your faith is proclaimed in all the world.
[9] For God is my witness, whom I serve with my spirit in the gospel of his Son, that without ceasing I mention you always in my prayers,
[10] asking that somehow by God's will I may now at last succeed in coming to you.
[11] For I long to see you, that I may impart to you some spiritual gift to strengthen you,
[12] that is, that we may be mutually encouraged by each other's faith, both yours and mine.
[13] I want you to know, brethren, that I have often intended to come to you (but thus far have been prevented), in order that I may reap some harvest among you as well as among the rest of the Gentiles.
[14] I am under obligation both to Greeks and to barbarians, both to the wise and to the foolish:
[15] so I am eager to preach the gospel to you also who are ****.


I cannot see why he says that this must refer to Rome?

What am I missing?
IIUC The argument is that the letter is addressed to some place with a significant Christian community that Paul has not visited but has serious plans to do so.

Rome seems a likely candidate particularly if you take seriously the claim in Acts 19:21 that Paul was at about this time planning to eventually visit Rome.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 10-12-2011, 09:29 AM   #15
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...

If Pervo (what a fab surname) goes as far as suggesting there is no history at all in Acts (or more to the point that it was meant as fiction), he would, I think, still be rare, or at least in a very small minority, as I understand it. ...
His surname is Finnish. He is the foremost authority on Acts.

Quote:
All I was saying is that Rome was the capital city and all roads (and busy sea routes) led there. I was asking the question, why wouldn't some Christians have reached Rome after 20 years, perhaps via Jewish connections? But what I would actually like is some evidence that it hadn't or that Paul wasn't writing to there, but to somewhere else. I accept these things are possible, and can be speculated.
Why are you not looking for some evidence that there were Christians in Rome at that time, or that Paul was writing to a church there? You are inverting the burden of proof and labeling one possibility as speculative.

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Wouldn't it be the more objective order of approach to first note that the evidences appear to say 'Christians in Rome', and then ask what evidence there is to the contrary?
Your "evidence" is the produce of a church that centered itself in Rome and has a documented history of forgery.
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Old 10-12-2011, 02:18 PM   #16
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Originally Posted by Toto View Post

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All I was saying is that Rome was the capital city and all roads (and busy sea routes) led there. I was asking the question, why wouldn't some Christians have reached Rome after 20 years, perhaps via Jewish connections? But what I would actually like is some evidence that it hadn't or that Paul wasn't writing to there, but to somewhere else. I accept these things are possible, and can be speculated.
Why are you not looking for some evidence that there were Christians in Rome at that time, or that Paul was writing to a church there? You are inverting the burden of proof and labeling one possibility as speculative.

Quote:
Wouldn't it be the more objective order of approach to first note that the evidences appear to say 'Christians in Rome', and then ask what evidence there is to the contrary?
Your "evidence" is the produce of a church that centered itself in Rome and has a documented history of forgery.
The first bit is just upside down thinking. Goodness knows what way your reasoning processes must work. For one thing, you don't seem to grasp that the texts are the starting point, as regards counting evidence. For another, I don't have to 'label' anything as speculative when it just is obviously more so.

The second bit is not even accurate. Tacitus is the produce of the church? Care to establish that? Oh yeah, the same editor did him and a few others. Yeah. I forgot.

And sequeing from the general to the particular like that as regards forgeries. well, it's just, er, breathtaking. :]

Regardless of the facts of the matter, I do not get the impression that you are able to even grasp the principles, or for that matter distinguish between what somebody actuall says and what you think it seems to say. I would strongly prefer it if you didn't respond to any more of my posts.

As for Pervo, he turns out to be the latest in a growing line of people you link me to who upon investigation don't quite give you as much support as first implied.
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Old 10-12-2011, 04:26 PM   #17
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In 1 Clement, we have:
http://www.earlychristianwritings.co...t-roberts.html
Let us take the noble examples furnished in our own generation... Owing to envy, Paul also obtained the reward of patient endurance, after being seven times thrown into captivity, compelled to flee, and stoned. After preaching both in the east and west, he gained the illustrious reputation due to his faith, having taught righteousness to the whole world, and come to the extreme limit of the west, and suffered martyrdom under the prefects.
Would "under the prefects" best fit Rome?
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Old 10-12-2011, 05:56 PM   #18
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Originally Posted by archibald View Post
...

The first bit is just upside down thinking. Goodness knows what way your reasoning processes must work. For one thing, you don't seem to grasp that the texts are the starting point, as regards counting evidence. For another, I don't have to 'label' anything as speculative when it just is obviously more so.
The texts are the starting point, but accepting them at face value is not. There are people who claim that anyone claiming an interpolation has a heavy burden of proof. These people are just wrong.

Quote:
The second bit is not even accurate. Tacitus is the produce of the church? Care to establish that? Oh yeah, the same editor did him and a few others. Yeah. I forgot.
I was referring to the content of Paul's epistle to the Romans. But yes, we only have copies of Tacitus because the Christian church preserved them, and monks copied them. This church does have a record of pious forgery. What is your objection to this?

Quote:
Regardless of the facts of the matter, I do not get the impression that you are able to even grasp the principles, or for that matter distinguish between what somebody actuall says and what you think it seems to say.
Feel free to point out where you think I am mistaken. I might be.

Quote:
I would strongly prefer it if you didn't respond to any more of my posts.
And leave you free to post misinformation? This is not an option.

Quote:
As for Pervo, he turns out to be the latest in a growing line of people you link me to who upon investigation don't quite give you as much support as first implied.
Then please point out exactly what your objection is. I have read several of his books. I don't cite him as support for mythicism.
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Old 10-12-2011, 06:01 PM   #19
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Originally Posted by archibald View Post
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Originally Posted by Toto View Post
.........

Your "evidence" is the produce of a church that centered itself in Rome and has a documented history of forgery.
The first bit is just upside down thinking. Goodness knows what way your reasoning processes must work.
Reasoning processes in the field of ancient history generally start with the evidence. Goodness knows what way your reasoning processes must work.


Quote:
For one thing, you don't seem to grasp that the texts are the starting point, as regards counting evidence.
The texts are anonymous and undated and are associated with a highly suspicious provenance. This is your starting point.

Quote:
For another, I don't have to 'label' anything as speculative when it just is obviously more so.
There are no certainties since the field (of history) can only be described in a probabilistic sense.

Quote:
The second bit is not even accurate. Tacitus is the produce of the church? Care to establish that? Oh yeah, the same editor did him and a few others. Yeah. I forgot.
Please arnaldo, you need to look at the evidence itself. The evidence suggests that there was a succession of centuries editors of the source material claimed to establish the absolute certitude of Chrestian origins.




Sloncha !
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Old 10-12-2011, 06:27 PM   #20
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Originally Posted by GakuseiDon View Post
In 1 Clement, we have:
http://www.earlychristianwritings.co...t-roberts.html
Let us take the noble examples furnished in our own generation... Owing to envy, Paul also obtained the reward of patient endurance, after being seven times thrown into captivity, compelled to flee, and stoned. After preaching both in the east and west, he gained the illustrious reputation due to his faith, having taught righteousness to the whole world, and come to the extreme limit of the west, and suffered martyrdom under the prefects.
Would "under the prefects" best fit Rome?
How -smoothly- that was inserted into Clement!
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