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Old 01-16-2013, 11:05 PM   #101
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Who used the single snake on a staff first?

Moses or the cult of Asclepius?
I doubt that we will ever be able to determine with any degree of certainty as both figures are lost in the mists of time and of mythology.
That may be so, but it may be we can try and arrive at some sort of relative probability concerning which was first.


Robert Grant states Asclepius was around in the time of Pythagoras.

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Pythagoras of Samos .... b. about 570 – d. about 495 BCE)
When was the Book of Numbers written containing Moses snake on a stick?

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Originally Posted by WIKI on the TORAH

Today the majority of academic scholars accept the theory that the Torah does not have a single author, and that its composition took place over centuries.[17] From the late 19th century there was a general consensus around the documentary hypothesis, which suggests that the five books were created c. 450 BCE by combining four originally independent sources, known as the Jahwist, or J (c. 900 BCE), the Elohist, or E (c. 800 BCE), the Deuteronomist, or D, (c. 600 BCE), and the Priestly source, or P (c. 500 BCE).[18] This general agreement began to break down in the late 1970s, and today there are many theories but no consensus, or even majority viewpoint
None of this really establishes the answer to the question I guess.
But it may indicate that the chances favour Asclepius as the precedent.
Even if the five Books were created c. 450 BCE the materials they were constructed from have been demonstrated to have been drawn from the mythologies and the symbolisms of much more ancient cultures.

It is not like the story of Moses putting the snake on the pole account is any actual history where we can do some math and calculate that Moses actually did this in such and such year.
The narrative is a pure religious fabrication based upon materials borrowed from old cultural folk tales, and perhaps writings adopted from multiple earlier cultures.
As such there is no way of dating Moses lifting up a serpent in the wilderness. Because in reality it never happened.
It is a fictional narrative, and when it was first written down has no bearing at all upon determining when the serpent on a pole symbology was first adopted and incorporated by the Hebrews into their origins mythology.
Writing about Moses and the Levites when the Torah was written was about like writing a narrative story about King Arthur and the Round Table would be today, legendary folk material cobbled together into a narrative form. Not history.
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Old 01-16-2013, 11:32 PM   #102
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You imply that the illiberal theology of the Torah was sufficient to exclude the possibility that some Jews cooperated with Egyptians and Greeks to invent Jesus.
That is not what you were suggesting originally. You were identifying the Therapeutae as this 'group.' All I have to say is:

:rolling:

Individual Jews certainly could have become apostates. But the idea that Philo would have associated with a community of apostates is absurd and there are clear signs that this community was related to that of Qumran (their strange calendar for one which always 'resets' on a Jubilee). This strongly indicates that they were 'Jewish' (whatever that means). You've got to stop with these crazy acid trips. There is nothing in the material to support your flights of fancy.

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That claim of ongoing Jewish exclusiveness is just silly.
For the Therapeutae? Really? What evidence is there to the contrary other than your desire to find something to support your hobby horse.

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The Gospels do not accept this reading, as shown in the 'but I say unto you' critiques of Jewish tradition.
Please don't start a fight you can't finish. This is a silly argument which you will flat on your face. Don't attempt gospel interpretation. If Jesus is God how does the gospel support the idea that Christians attended pagan rites or abandoned their god? There is the apocryphal statement of Hadrian but he is saying this as a slight against the Christians. Please the read the context of the statement in its entirety.

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Some Jews helped to mesh the midrash with the logos.
What do you know about midrash? Please continue with this absurdity.
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Old 01-17-2013, 02:49 AM   #103
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You were identifying the Therapeutae as this 'group.'
And here Stephan places a word in quotes that I never even used. Or maybe 'group' indicates his disdain for what he called the "defiled" and "monstrous." I can see that Stephan's capacity to distort means any useful discussion is likely to be a challenge.
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the idea that Philo would have associated with a community of apostates is absurd… You've got to stop with these crazy acid trips.
I can understand why FRDB indulges some of your longer term members in their more creative language. I hope not all would agree that discussion of whether the Therapeutae were Hellenised and had an interest in the religion of Egypt is evidence of my use of LSD. That sort of froth appears designed to get attention. Perhaps Stephan does not like people talking about who the Therapeutae were?
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That claim of ongoing Jewish exclusiveness is just silly.
For the Therapeutae? Really? What evidence is there to the contrary other than your desire to find something to support your hobby horse.
You might care to read something about ancient Alexandria. It was a melting pot. Philo says the Therapeutae, (and note the Greek name there) were contemplatives, who "draw out in thought and allegory their ancestral philosophy, since they regard the literal meanings as symbols of an inner and hidden nature revealing itself in covert ideas." But Stephan says they were Jewish exclusives, despite this interest in allegory and symbol. The oracle Herr Dr Huller insists that the Therapeutae of Alexandria maintained an exclusive Torah purity. Really?
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how does the gospel support the idea that Christians attended pagan rites or abandoned their god?
Again, the great Herr Dr Dr is putting words into my mouth that I did not use. My point was that Christianity explicitly criticised the religion of Moses. Perhaps Herr Dr has not heard of the Sermon on the Mount? By Jesus Christ? Matthew 5? "Ye have heard that it hath been said, An eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth: 39 But I say unto you, That ye resist not evil"

Text from Philo's On The Contemplative Life is at http://www-relg-studies.scu.edu/facs...herapeutae.htm

The eminent Dr Huller would have us believe, unless I misread him, that the Therapeuts were exclusivist Jews. And yet Philo calls them "The best people from all parts". He says they use "the other [books] by means of which religion and sound knowledge grow together into one perfect whole," a description that does not read as exclusive. He says their "Elders are, in their regard, those who from their earliest age have passed their youth and maturity in the contemplative branch of philosophy, which truly is the noblest and most divine." That does not read as Jewish exclusivism.

Further, it appears the Therapeuts had a highly esoteric approach: Philo says "[Their] exposition of sacred scripture proceeds by unfolding the meaning hidden in allegories. For the entire law is regarded by these persons as resembling an animal; and for its body it has the literal precepts, but for its soul the unseen reason (nous) hidden away in the words. And in and through this reason the rational and self-conscious soul begins to contemplate in a special manner its own proper intuitions. For by means of the names, as it were by means of a gazing crystal, it discerns the surpassing beauties of the notions conveyed in them. Thus, on the one hand, it unfolds and unveils the symbols, and on the other brings forward the meanings into the light and exhibits them naked to those who by a little exercise of memory are able to behold things not clear by means of things that are."

I do wish there were some rare souls today capable of taking such a passage seriously. What it shows is that the entire concept of apostasy that Stephan Huller has introduced to this discussion is irrelevant for this sort of unfolding of allegory. Indeed, by allegory, it appears that Moses is a myth. Efforts to present the therapeuts as exclusivist bigots reflect a very limited and false understanding.

Next, Philo explains that the therapeuts have a ritual like "a Bacchic festival in which they had drunk deep of the Divine love." Oh, but Stephan tells us this is the same Philo who was so opposed to apostasy! Clearly, Philo's mention of Bacchus, the Greco-Roman Dionysian God of ecstasy, steps somewhat outside the strict tradition of Moses.

Philo concludes by explaining the sun worship of the therapeuts: "drunk until dawn with this godly drunkenness, neither heavy of head nor with winking eyes, but more wide awake than when they came into the banquet, they stand up, and turn both their eyes and their whole bodies towards the East. And, so soon as they spy the sun rising, they stretch out aloft their hands to heaven and fall to praying for a fair day, and for truth, and for clear judgment to see with.”

This image is like those from ancient Egyptian prayer books, with the devout holding up their hands to Ra the Sun God. Best to skip over such passages if they offend your sense of Jewish exclusivism.
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Old 01-17-2013, 06:41 AM   #104
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That claim of ongoing Jewish exclusiveness is just silly.
For the Therapeutae? Really? What evidence is there to the contrary other than your desire to find something to support your hobby horse.
I have cited evidence above to which you have failed to respond that there existed in Alexandria, Rome and elsewhere a very numerous class of people who attended to the Healing god Asclepius and assisted in his temples and who knew themselves as the "therapeutae of Asclepius". These therapeutae were not Jewish. They were about as pagan as you get.
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Old 01-17-2013, 01:44 PM   #105
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But you have ======= limitations that don't allow you to see that what you describe as 'evidence' is really mere coincidence. You don't even have the basic ability to understand that the wordt therapeutae doesn't come from a root which means 'healing' per se but merely 'attending.' It's impossible to get through to you so I don't see the point at being aggravated. I think if your purpose here is to drive people nuts by saying the same thing a hundred different ways you are back with a vengeance.
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Old 01-17-2013, 02:59 PM   #106
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I think another possibility for the name 'therapeutae' is that it translates into Greek the plural form of the Hebrew שִׁמְעָא (albeit with two mems) which means 'attendant' or 'disciple' (from shema 'to hear, listen, attend' etc). Could the therapeutae at once have been 'Simoniani'? It's linguistically possible. I've been looking at this shit forever and I never saw that before. Thanks Robert, mountainman et al.
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Old 01-17-2013, 03:15 PM   #107
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therapeutae doesn't mean 'healing' per se
But Asclepius was the god of medicine and healing in ancient Greek religion. Are you now questioning a link between the therapeuts and Asclepius?

A good discussion of therapeuts is at this thread on Therapeuts and Ancient Usages of the Greek Word Therapeuo.
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Old 01-17-2013, 03:18 PM   #108
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so what? its principal meaning is "attendant" or "attendants" of the gods or god. the term is used with all the gods not just Asclepius
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Old 01-17-2013, 03:22 PM   #109
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therapeutae doesn't mean 'healing' per se
But Asclepius was the god of medicine and healing in ancient Greek religion. Are you now questioning a link between the therapeuts and Asclepius?

A good discussion of therapeuts is at this thread on Therapeuts and Ancient Usages of the Greek Word Therapeuo.
Thanks Robert.

From that page:

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While contemplating this issue, it should be kept in mind that Indologists and other scholars familiar with India have noted the correspondence between this word Therapeut and the Indian term Theraputta. In this regard, I have a document in the editing stage that explores this connection in greater depth, based on the writings of Drs. Michael Lockwood and Christian Lindtner.

The verb θεραπεύω/therapeuo in some form appears in some 300 extant Greek documents from antiquity, sometimes dozens of usages in the same text, for a total of thousands of instances. It is therefore hardly an obscure term. Yet, the scholarship concerning the mysterious Therapeuts of Philo makes it seem as if this word is very unfamiliar to both us and the ancient readers of Greek. That misconception needs to be disabused, as does the notion that Philo's Therapeuts were the only such individuals by that name in the Mediterranean of the time.

Achilles Tatius
Aelian
Aeschines
Antiphon
Apollodorus
Appian
Aristides (numerous times)
Aristophanes
Arrian
Athenaeus (numerous times)
Cassius Dio
Chariton
Claudius Ptolemy
Demosthenes
Dio Chrysostom
Diodorus
Diogenes
Dionysius of Halicarnassus
Epictetus
Euripides (numerous times)
Galen
Herodotus
Hesiod
Hippocrates
Homer
Hymn 3 to Apollo
Hyperides
Isaeus
Isocrates
Julian (many times)
Lucian (numerous times)
Lysias
Marcus Aurelius
Onasander
Philostratus the Athenian
Pindar
Plato (especially popular in Plato)
Plutarch (many, many times - MOST references are in Plutarch)
Polybius
Procopius
Sophocles
Strabo
Theophrastus
Thucydides (numerous times)
Xenophon
And a little further on .....

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Therapeuting in the New Testament

It should be noted that the word is used in the biblical book of Acts several times as well at Acts 4:14, 5:16, 8:7, 17:25, 28:9. In the New Testament, some form of θεραπεύω/therapeuō (Strong's G2323) is used 44 times, a number of these instances describing Jesus healing people (e.g., Mt 4:23-24). For example, Matthew 8:7:


...[...]...

Actually, in the New Testament we have one instance after another in which Jesus or his disciples are "therapeuting" people all over the place - it's a major term used to describe this crucially important aspect of Jesus's ministry. Many of the miraculous deeds for which Jesus was purportedly famed throughout the land revolve around people being "therapeuted."


There is good reason, therefore, that Eusebius pointed to Philo's Therapeuts as the proto-Christians.
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Old 01-17-2013, 03:29 PM   #110
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so what? its principal meaning is "attendant" or "attendants" of the gods or god. the term is used with all the gods not just Asclepius
No one is arguing otherwise. The therapeutae of Asclepius, as has been stated many times earlier, were far more numerous than any other "attendants of the [pagan] gods". The reason that this was the case is because the temples of Asclepius were most ancient, extremely large and had networks of smaller temples and shrines extending everywhere within the empire and even outside of it.

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Originally Posted by huller
You don't even have the basic ability to understand that the wordt therapeutae doesn't come from a root which means 'healing' per se but merely 'attending.'
You are not reading what I have written.

You are creating a strawman and knocking it down.

Again and again I must remind you to address the evidence itself.
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