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Old 11-07-2005, 11:38 AM   #51
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Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
...

As for the attribution of 1 Clement to an apocryphal pope, the text itself makes no claim that it written by Clement or any other putative Roman bishop. The claim of authorship to Clement is merely in the title, which, like many such extra-textual elements, was added by a later editor. While the attribution to Clement may be as late as the last half of the second century along the lines of the reasons you give, the otherwise anonymous nature of the body of the text suggests a period of time in which the actual identity of the Roman leadership to its audience was less important. In my opinion, that would be before Rome adopted the model of the monarchical episcopate (in the mid-to-late second century).
Hi Stephen,

Once the psuedononymous nature of 1 Clement is admitted, there is nothing to compel a first century date. 1 Clement can't used as a first century witness to Paul.

Jake Jones IV
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Old 11-07-2005, 01:57 PM   #52
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Originally Posted by jakejonesiv
Once the psuedononymous nature of 1 Clement is admitted, there is nothing to compel a first century date. 1 Clement can't used as a first century witness to Paul.
My question to you, however, was whether 1 Clement was before or after Marcion in the 140s--not whether it belongs to the first century.

Stephen
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Old 11-07-2005, 02:30 PM   #53
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Originally Posted by jakejonesiv
Hi Stephen,

Once the psuedononymous nature of 1 Clement is admitted, there is nothing to compel a first century date. 1 Clement can't used as a first century witness to Paul.

Jake Jones IV
a/ 1 Clement is not pseudononymous (ie falsely claiming to be by Clement) it is an anonymous epistle attributed (rightly or wrongly) to Clement.

b/ The apparent situation described in chapter 44 of 1 Clement where some contemporary church leaders are described as directly appointed by the apostles and some indirectly; has implications for the date.

On the normal dates for the apostles this seems to require a date somewhere between 70 and 110 CE.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 11-08-2005, 06:08 AM   #54
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Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
My question to you, however, was whether 1 Clement was before or after Marcion in the 140s--not whether it belongs to the first century.

Stephen
Right.
HDetering dates the catholic redaction to about 180 CE.

Jake Jones
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Old 11-08-2005, 07:27 AM   #55
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Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
... After Marcion, I'd expect it to be more likely see Paul's being ignored rather than lionized, and that's what we see with Justin, Tatian, etc. Sure, Irenaeus appealed to Paul, but Irenaeus also knew Acts and the Pastorals. These pro-Pauline texts outside the Marcionite canon contain ammunition Irenaeus could use to counter the Marcionites without having to give up on Paul.
...
Ok, I think I see what you are saying. It is what Robert Price would term the "Second Coming of Paul" approach http://www.depts.drew.edu/jhc/Rpcanon.html.

Paul was originally a preimenent apostle along with Peter. This would be in the first century if 1 Clement is genuine and dated correctly. Then Marcion, about 140 CE, abridged Paul's letters for heretical use, and such is the embarrasment that Paul is shunned by the Church fathers through the mid to late second century.

Paul is rehabiltated by Irenaeus about 180 CE and resumes his rightful place as part of the dynamic duo of Peter and Paul, essentially going full circle.

You have noted that Irenaeus knew Acts and the Pastorals which he used to counter the Marconites. Apparently these were not available to Justin, Tatian, Quadratus, Minucius Felix, Aristides, and Athenagoras, or else they would have defended Paul from the Marconites themselves.

An alternate solution suggest itself. These catholisizing works were written for the purpose of combatting Gnosticism and Marcionism, and date to the second half of the second century. The redaction of 1 Clement, the writing of the Ignatians, the catholic expansion of the more original marconite paulinics (Marcion abridged nothing) are all late creations to co-opt the "Aposlte of the Heretics", for the purpose of establishing the preimenence of the Roman church.

Thus Peter and Paul, legendary founders of the two factions, were imagined to have worked hand in glove to establish the church at Rome.

Jake Jones
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Old 11-09-2005, 04:52 AM   #56
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Originally Posted by Julian
But these are all gospel claims. The pillars would not need to claim any of these events as they were probably much later inventions. All the pillars would have to say was that they traipsied around the country side with some guy babbling about being the son of god. There was no lack of those characters in the 1st century. I think that it is quite clear from Galatians that the pillars make no fantastic claims regarding Jesus or Paul would surely have related them to us.

I guess that I am not comfortable dismissing Galatian which, to my mind along with 1st Thessalonians, are the strongest and most believable Paul material, despite some obvious later tampering.
A couple of things. "Paul" states he never met Jesus. So whatever you are using Galatians for, it is not evidence for your first supposition. Even if Paul existed, he only claims to have met Jesus "spiritually".

I'm not sure what to do with your first supposition. It seems to me it is the assertion that there were people who followed someone who claimed divine inspiration. Well, of course. Plenty of them. But there were no disciples of the gospel Jesus. He did not exist.


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But Paul believes that they are special, if hypocritical, and consults them even though he represents a different christian trajectory. They didn't invent a Jesus, he must have already been there. Somehow they got themselves inserted as important people. Did they know a historic so-called messiah named Jesus (of whom there were quite a few)? Or did they simply one day declare that, yeah, they were there. Sure.

Hard to say for sure. What is your explanation?
I'm sorry - I do not know exactly what you want me to answer. I see these so-called letters as fabrications, with the ultimate purpose of consolidating power among groups that somehow evolved out of the mileu.

I need to read this piece. I'm still not home yet and haven't ordered it.

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BTW, I don't have a koine version handy. Does Paul refer to the Jerusalem group as μαθετες? αποστολοι?

Julian

Sorry Julian. Don't know greek. Maybe you have a question about supercubs or something I could speak intelligently about.
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Old 11-09-2005, 07:27 AM   #57
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Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
If it's an argument against the Marcionite demiurge, it would have to be very subtle, because there is no mention of the demiurge per se or explicit acknowledgement of the controversy.
It wasn't subtle at all to Irenaeus who was the first to assert that 1 Clement was based on apostolic authority.

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"This man (Clement), as he had seen the blessed apostles, and had been conversant with them, might be said to have the preaching of the apostles still echoing [in his ears], and their traditions before his eyes. ... In the time of this Clement, ... the Church in Rome despatched a most powerful letter to the Corinthians, ... declaring the tradition which it had lately received from the apostles, proclaiming the one God, omnipotent, the Maker of heaven and earth, the Creator of man, ... From this document, whosoever chooses to do so, may learn that He, the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, was preached by the Churches, and may also understand the apostolical tradition of the Church, since this Epistle is of older date than these men who are now propagating falsehood, and who conjure into existence another god beyond the Creator and the Maker of all existing things." Irenaeus (AH 3.3.3).
http://www.ccel.org/fathers2/ANF-01/...#P7317_1944667
The insistence that the creator (demiurge) was identical to the Father of Jesus Christ was indeed a direct attempted refutation of Marcionite and gnostic dualism.

Jake Jones
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Old 11-09-2005, 08:23 AM   #58
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Originally Posted by jakejonesiv
It wasn't subtle at all to Irenaeus who was the first to assert that 1 Clement was based on apostolic authority.
Irenaeus's argument was an argument from silence: "since this Epistle is of older date than these men who are now propagating falsehood, and who conjure into existence another god beyond the Creator and the Maker of all existing things." There is no mention of the other god (or direct refutation of it) in 1 Clement.

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Originally Posted by jakejonesiv
The insistence that the creator (demiurge in e.g. 1 Clement 20:6 gk) was identical to the Father of Jesus Christ was indeed a direct attempted refutation of Marcionite and gnostic dualism.
I missed that reference, thanks. That word is found as one of many superlatives in an embedded prayer, and it does not describe a separate entity responsible for creation (which is what I had in mind) but rather a role. One of 1 Clement's sources, Hebrews, also applies the role of demiurge to God (Heb. 11:10).

Viewing it as a refutation of Marcionite dualism also begs the question about how innovative was Marcion about a separate creator god. Irenaeus thought it was much earlier than that, ascribing that view to Cerinthus and Cerdo, both predecessors of Marcion:

Cerinthus, again, a man who was educated in the wisdom of the Egyptians, taught that the world was not made by the primary God, but by a certain Power far separated from him, and at a distance from that Principality who is supreme over the universe, and ignorant of him who is above all. (AH 1.26.1)

Cerdo was one who took his system from the followers of Simon, and came to live at Rome in the time of Hyginus, who held the ninth place in the episcopal succession from the apostles downwards. He taught that the God proclaimed by the law and the prophets was not the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ. For the former was known, but the latter unknown; while the one also was righteous, but the other benevolent. (AH 1.27.1)
As we saw with Irenaeus's appeal to 1 Clement, the antiquity of a doctrine was important, so it is a significant concession that Irenaeus would admit that the concept of a separate creator was older than Marcion. (Cerinthus seems to have flourish when most scholars date 1 Clement.)

Stephen
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Old 11-09-2005, 09:10 AM   #59
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Originally Posted by jakejonesiv
Ok, I think I see what you are saying. It is what Robert Price would term the "Second Coming of Paul" approach http://www.depts.drew.edu/jhc/Rpcanon.html.
I suppose there are some similarities, but I'm more influenced by Peter Lampe.

Quote:
Originally Posted by jakejonesiv
An alternate solution suggest itself. These catholisizing works were written for the purpose of combatting Gnosticism and Marcionism, and date to the second half of the second century. The redaction of 1 Clement, the writing of the Ignatians, the catholic expansion of the more original marconite paulinics (Marcion abridged nothing) are all late creations to co-opt the "Aposlte of the Heretics", for the purpose of establishing the preimenence of the Roman church.
"The redaction of 1 Clement"? Do you mean that there was an earlier form of 1 Clement?


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Originally Posted by jakejonesiv
Thus Peter and Paul, legendary founders of the two factions, were imagined to have worked hand in glove to establish the church at Rome.
That sounds a lot like more Irenaeus than 1 Clement. In 1 Clement, neither Peter nor Paul are founders of the church in Rome (in ch. 5, they are merely called "pillars of the Church" without geographical limitation). More telling, however, is the candid admission that Paul got in trouble because of internal problems in the church: "Because of of jealosy and strife Paul by his example pointed out the way to the prize for patient endurance." This gives so much ammunition to pro-Pauline Marcionites that it is hard for me believe that it written in the wake of Marcion's challenge to Roman orthodoxy.

Personally, I find the idea of a wholesale production of pro-Pauline fakes to co-opt the "Apostle of the Heretics" to be too clever by half. Fakes need to build on earlier texts widely accepted as genuine. For example, 3 Corinthians needs 1 Corinthians for its veneer of authenticity. The battle to define Paul in the mid-second century presupposes a general agreement that there was a Paul important enough to redefine. First Clement's view of Paul has something in it for both sides of the Marcionite conflict, and in fact represents more rawly the traditions about Paul that the mid-second century Christians were fighting each other over to define.

Stephen
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Old 11-09-2005, 10:14 AM   #60
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Originally Posted by rlogan
A couple of things. "Paul" states he never met Jesus. So whatever you are using Galatians for, it is not evidence for your first supposition. Even if Paul existed, he only claims to have met Jesus "spiritually".

I'm not sure what to do with your first supposition. It seems to me it is the assertion that there were people who followed someone who claimed divine inspiration. Well, of course. Plenty of them. But there were no disciples of the gospel Jesus. He did not exist.
I agree that Paul never met Jesus. I also find it probable that Jesus did not ever exist. My point was simply that for the pillars to claim that they were the disciples (or disciples of disciples) of Jesus would not have been all that remarkable in pre-gospel days. That was part of the reason why I asked the greek question. I forgot to look it up when I had the chance last night.
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I'm sorry - I do not know exactly what you want me to answer. I see these so-called letters as fabrications, with the ultimate purpose of consolidating power among groups that somehow evolved out of the mileu.

I need to read this piece. I'm still not home yet and haven't ordered it.
While I am ready to dismiss a historical Jesus, I am not quite willing to toss Paul on to the fire just yet. I am willing to sacrifice much of the text of the Pauline letters. Many of the forgeries are blatantly bad that they shine through even in a bad english translation. I can see why Detering can find them useful in his radical views. I just can't see Paul being used by Marcion and then revised by the orthodox. Why not just dump him with Marcion?

I need to do some more reading on this topic myself. Unfortunately, most of my time is spent on the synoptic problem these days.
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Sorry Julian. Don't know greek. Maybe you have a question about supercubs or something I could speak intelligently about.
I was just wondering if they are referred to as disciples or apostles or something else in the greek. It was my bad for not providing a translation.

And forget the supercub, I have seen your pictures of where you have to land. (Supercub is your plane, right?)

Julian
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