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Old 12-31-2006, 02:11 AM   #11
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Phlegon may have been quoting someone, that is unknown but ti would be accurate to say his account was most likely accurate, consider if i say the declaration of independence was signed in 1776 on July 4th, we can obviously go check recorrds and say that that is correct, Phlegon most likely did the same thing.
But just after Africanus dismisses it is not an eclipse, he claims Phlegon said it was an eclipse. (Without of course, doing anything so crass as quoting Phlegon's exact words)

Why dismiss the idea of it being an eclipse and then quote people saying it was an eclipse? Very strange.

Eusebius, another Christian writer did quote Phlegon.

'Jesus Christ..underwent his passion in the 18th year of Tiberius [32 AD]. Also at that time in another Greek compendium we find an event recorded in these words: "the sun was eclipsed, Bithynia was struck by an earthquake, and in the city of Nicaea many buildings fell." All these things happened to occur during the Lord's passion. In fact, Phlegon, too, a distinguished reckoner of Olympiads, wrote more on these events in his 13th book, saying this: "Now, in the fourth year of the 202nd Olympiad [32 AD], a great eclipse of the sun occurred at the sixth hour [noon] that excelled every other before it, turning the day into such darkness of night that the stars could be seen in heaven, and the earth moved in Bithynia, toppling many buildings in the city of Nicaea."'

Nothing about this eclipse lasting three hours, and nothing about the eclipse occuring at a full moon, which people knew was unprecedented.
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Old 12-31-2006, 03:42 AM   #12
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There are only two ways I could think of fora a planet top seem to stop above a place on earth:

1) The retrograded motion is exact compensating for the change of angle due the rotation of the earth. wich of course is impossible.
2) The position of the planet is only measured at some specific time/occasion as f.ex. sunrise or sunset.

Anycase: the star would never indicate a certain position, only an direction, and a direction that would differ due to the location of the viewer....
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Old 12-31-2006, 05:29 AM   #13
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Originally Posted by goldenroad View Post
Phlegon may have been quoting someone, that is unknown but ti would be accurate to say his account was most likely accurate, consider if i say the declaration of independence was signed in 1776 on July 4th, we can obviously go check recorrds and say that that is correct, Phlegon most likely did the same thing.
Where are these records? We seem to have only his word on this. I can look up historical records regarding the Declaration, but I have nothing about earthquakes in Bithynia.

Also, there was no eclipse in the mediterranean in 32 CE. The closest one was through Turkey, Syria, Iraq, and the far eastern edge of Saudi Arabia on 11-24-29 CE.
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Old 12-31-2006, 05:38 AM   #14
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You could be right that the reference at Wikipedia is to Thallus not to Tacitus. It doesn't give a reference, so maybe the person who added it confused the two names. Maybe.

I already discussed Thallus in a thread here last year: http://www.iidb.org/vbb/showthread.php?t=126901

It's difficult to tell if there really was some kind of darkness during the crucifixion. I would tend to see it more as a stylistic device used in the synoptic gospels. What the quoted ancient historians refer to is also difficult to tell, but it also could be some other eclipse like the one from 29 AD or simply heresay that is brought into connection with the story of Christ. But it's really difficult to come to a definite conclusion here.
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Old 12-31-2006, 06:11 AM   #15
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Also, the Amos quote given by JK states that the sun would actually set at noon, not merely that things would get dark, so I wonder if the two were ever meant to be associated. The Amos passage is about a famine and drought of the words of the Lord, so I would guess that the sun setting would be part of the metaphor, rather than a description of an actual event. I don't think Mark would have tried to extracontextualize and literalize this passage so--it seems a bit much, even for him, to tell people that an event which they don't remember happening was prophesied in a way that they couldn't understand.
Michael "Vorkosigan" Turton notes additional parallels which I had not thought of:

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v33: Compare to Amos 8:9:
"In that day," declares the Sovereign LORD , "I will make the sun go down at noon and darken the earth in broad daylight. 10 I will turn your religious feasts into mourning and all your singing into weeping. I will make all of you wear sackcloth and shave your heads. I will make that time like mourning for an only son and the end of it like a bitter day. (NIV)


Dominic Rudman (2003, p104) notes that this text contains two elements found here: the darkness at noon (the sixth hour), and "mourning for an only son." One might add a third element, that Jesus was executed during a religious feast. Darkness over all the land is also found in Exodus 10:21-23, and in Jeremiah 15:9, where it appears as a punishment from God. Similarly in Wisdom 5:6 the sun does not rise on those who strayed from justice. There are many similar OT parallels.
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Old 12-31-2006, 08:40 AM   #16
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I have to say that I am also a bit doubtful about the darkness at the crucifixion being a reference to the Amos passage. The "mourning for an only son" seems to be an expression to describe a very sincere mourning, but not a literal expression to describe the mourning for a "son", or even for the son of God/messiah.

Of course passages like that could have been an influence or inspiration for the general theme of darkness during an important event like the crucifixion, but I'm doubtful that the gospel authors had that specific Amos passage in mind or were even refering to that.
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Old 12-31-2006, 09:19 AM   #17
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Jupiter did, in fact, begin retrograde on December 27, 2BCE. So what? It also retrograded: 7-17-7 BCE, 8-22-6 BCE, 9-25-5 BCE, 10-27-4BCE, 11-27-3 BCE, 1-26-1 CE, and so forth. Notice the predictable pattern--it takes about 13 months from the start of one retrograde phase to the start of the next. This was known to many ancient cultures. Several Greeks figured it out. The Arabs noted it. The Mayans noted it. It's predictable, and one cannot therefore justify identifying it with a 'miraculous' phenomenom--I might as well claim that I am the son of God because on the day that I was born, a bright ball of fire rose in the east.
Thank you for your comment.

I was quite sure that there was something to that retrograde motion argument, as the concept was mentioned on several websites, including Wikipedia. You give a date of Dec 27 2BC instead of Dec 25 - could you tell from what source you got this information? Or did you calculate those dates for yourself?

BTW, I think that the dates for the major conjunctions in 3/2 BC in the table at the bottom of http://askelm.com/star/star004.htm are probably correct - at least two of the dates (12 Aug 3BC and 17 June 2BC) and the triple conjunction of Jupiter and Regulus are also mentioned in the German version of Wikipedia.

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Anycase: the star would never indicate a certain position, only an direction, and a direction that would differ due to the location of the viewer....
Of course you are correct: A star could only give an approximate direction and is not an indicator for a specific place. It could maybe have given the direction from Jerusalem to Bethlehem.

I nevertheless regard the star more as a mythological symbol rather than historical fact.
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Old 12-31-2006, 01:42 PM   #18
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Thank you for your comment.
You're welcome.

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I was quite sure that there was something to that retrograde motion argument, as the concept was mentioned on several websites, including Wikipedia.
Most people who have no actual training in astronomy are surprised to hear anything about retrograde motion, so it is understandable that you felt there was something to it. In actuality, that sort of thing happens so often that it would draw little attention from a regular stargazer.

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You give a date of Dec 27 2BC instead of Dec 25 - could you tell from what source you got this information? Or did you calculate those dates for yourself?
Extensive googling (try to ignore the astrology sites--they tend to ignore the fact that we haven't used the same calendar for the last 2000 years) coupled with some good old fashioned number crunching. I should also note that, in order to save myself some work, I only included dates when Jupiter began retrograde motion, although the same effect is produced when it ends (~4 months later).

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BTW, I think that the dates for the major conjunctions in 3/2 BC in the table at the bottom of http://askelm.com/star/star004.htm are probably correct - at least two of the dates (12 Aug 3BC and 17 June 2BC) and the triple conjunction of Jupiter and Regulus are also mentioned in the German version of Wikipedia.
A. I never trust anything on Wikipedia that I cannot verify with a legitimate independent source, but it does say permission of Griffin Observatory, so, eh.

B. The author of the book makes the claim that since Jupiter, King of the Gods was in conjunction with Regulus, Star of the King, this is proof positive that that is when the King of Kings was born. I do not have the knowledge and skills necessary to calculate conjuntions (which is quite difficult), so let's use his calculations.

19 May 3 BCE--The Messenger of the Gods is in conjunction with the Father of the King of Gods.

12 June 3 BCE--The Goddess of Love is in conjunction with the Father of the King of Gods.

12 August 3 BCE--The Goddess of Love is in conjunction with the King of Gods.

31 August 3 BCE--The Goddess of Love is in conjunction with the Messenger of the Gods.

14 September, 17 February, & 8 May 3 BCE--The King of Gods is in conjunction with the Star of Kings (but can only be seen on one of those three dates)

17 June 2 BCE--The Goddess of Love is in conjunction with the King of Gods.

26 August 2 BCE--The King of Gods is in conjunction with the God of War.

With very little imagination, any one of these could be turned into proof of Jesus' birth--god sent his messenger to tell us he loves us, etc. The whole thing is made simple by the fact that the Christians began with an auspicious event and then deduced Jesus' birth from it. It's always easier to prove something when you begin with the end in mind and have no limitations placed on what constitutes evidence.

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I nevertheless regard the star more as a mythological symbol rather than historical fact.
As well you should.
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Old 12-31-2006, 01:46 PM   #19
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Nice catch, but I still say Mark would have had a hard time selling Jesus as a fulfillment of Amos 8 (if that is what he was trying to do), if for no other reason than that the whole chapter is about the Lord abandoning Israel and refusing to speak to/help them any longer, which is the exact opposite of what Jesus was supposedly all about.
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Old 12-31-2006, 08:23 PM   #20
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Nice catch, but I still say Mark would have had a hard time selling Jesus as a fulfillment of Amos 8 (if that is what he was trying to do), if for no other reason than that the whole chapter is about the Lord abandoning Israel and refusing to speak to/help them any longer, which is the exact opposite of what Jesus was supposedly all about.
How do you think the events of 66-70 AD were interpreted? Read the parable of the vineyard in Mark 12:1-9 and the "little apocalypse," Mark 13. See also Matthew 22:7.
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