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Old 10-10-2005, 12:40 AM   #321
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
the doctrine of dispensationalism states that God "dispenses" experiential lessons to man via distinct human epochs. this progression of ideas moving toward the complete restoration of the relationship between man (those who have accepted God's plan) and God clearly indicates a conscious, deliberate plan.
Good Lord what tripe. Hall of fame gibberish for sure:

Man's ideas about God change. Therefore it's been planned by God.


Doesn't follow, but one has got to be proud of dressing up a turd in such fine rhetorical silk here.

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most systematic theology books will outline that God had a plan for mankind via dispensationalism, but might not present the idea in the same iteration.
Most systematic tarot card readers put them on the table face up. But not all of them.



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for example, in wayne grudem's "systematic thelogy", several of the same ideas are presented;

1. why man was created - for fellowship with God
2. what our purpose is - to experience life and a relationship with God
3. define our identity - created in the image of God
4. purpose in the fall - man is free to choose to disobey, free to choose reconciliation, occasion for God to show love and personal interest in man
5. result of the fall - progressive redemption of man indicating we are important to God, worthy of being redeemed


this all seems a bit excessive for the point.
Excessive? Oh, that's being charitable. I don't see any point other than speculative musings about an egocentric sky-daddy.


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if God is omniscient and had what we would call foreknowledge of man's disobedience
Got to marvel at the energy expended on redundant piffle:

"If god knew everything and had what we call a knowledge of stuff..."

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how could He not have a plan for that eventuality?
...then he would, like - know what to do. :thumbs:
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Old 10-10-2005, 10:04 AM   #322
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
it is possible that your request was not completely clear to every possible person. clearly, i was trying to honestly provide an answer to your query. that should have been a signal to you. the most efficient way to communicate in this case is for you to let me know HOW my answer is deficient so i can more pointedly respond and we don't have to waste time with personal insults.
I explained it several times. You failed to read my posts. Again: There was a colon. *shrug*

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i believe you are asking me to show that i am not the only person who claims that God was prepared for the fall, that God knew it would happen and had a plan for that eventuality. to this i have a couple of responses.
Close. That's the right topic, but I rather asked you to show that this claim is common among Christians (which is, paraphrased, what you originally said).

Quote:
the doctrine of dispensationalism states that God "dispenses" experiential lessons to man via distinct human epochs. this progression of ideas moving toward the complete restoration of the relationship between man (those who have accepted God's plan) and God clearly indicates a conscious, deliberate plan.
But it does not indicate that god already had this plan before the Fall.

Quote:
most systematic theology books will outline that God had a plan for mankind via dispensationalism, but might not present the idea in the same iteration. for example, in wayne grudem's "systematic thelogy", several of the same ideas are presented;
[snip]
4. purpose in the fall - man is free to choose to disobey, free to choose reconciliation, occasion for God to show love and personal interest in man
5. result of the fall - progressive redemption of man indicating we are important to God, worthy of being redeemed
Thanks for this information. Strange that I've never heard about this. :huh:

Quote:
this all seems a bit excessive for the point. if God is omniscient and had what we would call foreknowledge of man's disobedience, how could He not have a plan for that eventuality?
IIRC, you originally claimed that the fall was only an option, that god would have preferred for the fall not to occur. So apparently he did not know that it will happen.


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i guess that depends on who you ask. g. k. chesterton aptly points out that to the atheist, sorrow is central and joy is peripheral. conversely, to the christian, joy is central and sorrow is peripheral.
I guess Chesterton is just making up some things to make a point (who the heck is this Chesterton?)

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how do you know we are dead after death (that man has no soul)?
Quite simply: Because there's no evidence at all to indicate otherwise. Consciousness is associated with a functioning brain in each and every case we know of. If one wants to claims otherwise, he has the burden of proof.

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So, to answer your question: Because this claim would not make the slightest sense.
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to whom?
To everyone who does not invent some things out of thin air to make a point. *shrug*

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evasion is not telling me how my response was inadequate. again, it's obvious i was trying but sometimes a request might not be completely clear. i feel like my response was adequate and thorough. you tried to build the strawman of me arguing that God wanted man to disobey which i did not do.
:huh: You said yourself that god wanted humans to have morals. The only way to get them was to disobey him. So he wanted A&E to disobey. Where's the strawman?

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what i have done is to argue that God allowed the possibility of disobedience and we chose it.
You can not have it both ways. Either he knew what will happen (and thus indeed had a plan for after the Fall), or he allowed for different outcomes.

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God then justly held us to the consequence of our choice.
Have you explained anywhere what exactly is just to held every human and every other living thing to the consequences of two of our ancestors?

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in this exchange:
Originally Posted by Sven
This entirely misses the point. The point is that god himself makes this pain happen. Why would he do so if A&E did exactly what he wanted them to do (although he said "Don't do it", just to remind you).

Originally Posted by bfniii
it has been discussed several times in this thread that God can use pain and even injustice in this life for ultimate good. the question is why you feel the paradigm of this existence should be different. apparently you feel God should not be allowed to do so. care to elaborate?

you didn't reply to my requests.
See above. He wanted us to have morals.

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i would also like to add that God does not make pain happen, He allows it. to state otherwise is to misinterpret the bible. if you have any specific verses you would like to discuss, bring them up.
Sorry, I consider it rather pointless by now to discuss anything with you. As I said, this is getting tiresome. As you may have noticed, I posted rather seldom in the last few weeks - I found out that I have much better things to do. So I'll follow Jack's way, snip the rest of this, and say "Bye".

[snip]
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Old 10-10-2005, 01:19 PM   #323
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
ANOTHER evasion, and ANOTHER falsehood.
could you please point out HOW my response is evasion or false? i provided a response which answers the question you pose.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
I have REPEATEDLY pointed out the problem, and you have REPEATEDLY stonewalled.
how am i stonewalling when i am providing responses to you and you don't explain how you feel they are inadequate? it sounds like you are the one stonewalling.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
It is quite obvious that YOU cannot answer. And, if you were aware of a workable answer, I think you would have attempted it by now.
i have provided several answers. i understand you don't like them.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You are, as usual, either misrepresenting or misunderstanding the situation: I KNOW about the secular theories regarding the origins of the Egyptian "miracles", but those theories aren't based on an inerrantist position, and don't attempt to fit them into the actual Biblical narrative: they cannot account for the miraculous TIMING of the Egyptian priests, and make no attempt to do so.
timing is something i have asked you about on multiple occasions. you used the word immediate. why do you use that word?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
If there IS an inerrantist version that works, you have not presented it, and it is quite obvious by now that you have nothing to present.
i am not trying to represent an inerrantist position. i am trying to point out possibilities.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Why would any invader seek to break down ordinary house walls?
maybe because the people within the walls were the enemy or because they belonged to the enemy?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
No, it isn't.
ok. we agree to disagree.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
There are several posters here for whom English is not their first language, but none of them show the bizarre pattern of basic language errors that you do. I suspect that you would be equally incapable of comprehending in ANY language: that your difficulty lies elsewhere.
i have no difficulty with the passage whatsoever. i understand that God was describing specific actions that would be taken against tyre by Him.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Our sense of ALTRUISM (the "social instinct" which evolution accounts for) allows us to do this.
allows us to do what? once again, you are being asked whether a particular act can be described as good or evil. for example, suicide bombers are altruistic to islamic extremists. are they right or wrong?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Of course it does! It isn't 100% effective, but "less than 100%" does not mean "nonexistent".
which brings us back to the original conflict. sometimes we act selflessly, sometimes we don't. why the inconsistency? if the social instinct exists, why isn't it effective in every case? there is an even deeper conflict. people have always fought for land. as one group grows in size, more land is required for sustanence. however, the expansion may encroach on another group's territory. is the encroachment right or wrong?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You are STILL arguing that freewill requires ignorance,
not at all. God told adam not to eat from the tree. adam was not ignorant.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
and this is somehow a "good thing":
the injunction itself is neither good nor bad, it is neutral. our response to it is either in compliance with the injunction or not. that is what is good or bad.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
the freedom to make erroneous decisions based on false information.
what false information? we know the consequences of our choices.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
This is the only "freedom" that would be taken away by God-implanted information.
if the "God-implanted information" is ineluctable and compulsory, then we would be without freedom. you propose that God educate us on suffering to the extent that we would know it so well as to never choose it. the difference between that proposal and actually experiencing pain is mere semantics. God could give us some kind of foreknowledge of any painful consequences but that would be obviation and would constitute a violation of freewill. it is all coercive and in the end we would be stripped of a valuable human experience. concordantly, this dovetails with the above point that sometimes we cause others pain when trying to avoid pain ourselves. the converse is also true regarding altruism, we cause ourselves pain in order to relieve it for others. so, which information is God to provide us, that which saves ourselves or others? a very convoluted proposition at best.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You would still have the freedom to make informed choices:
we have that now!

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Incorrect. What part of the phrase "God-implanted knowledge" do you not understand?
whether it's "God-implanted knowledge" or not is irrelevant. it arrived in our brain by some means other than our choice. furthermore, your reply doesn't address the point that the pain we experience is cognitive information. if God puts it in our brain, we still experience pain.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Wrong as usual. THIS discussion isn't about "punishment" (just or otherwise): it's about human sacrifice as a gift to God. You have said that you don't have a problem with it,
why don't you expound on what problem you have with numbers 31?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
AND you've said that this God is "awful".
i don't recall saying that.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You were specifically asked to provide support for your unique "adult sacrificial volunteers" fantasy, and THIS is the passage you cited in response. Now you have abandoned your position.
i don't think you understood my response. i am maintaining that the passage in question does not refer to human sacrifice, except the part about holding the guilty accountible for their actions. that has been my position from the beginning. i did indeed provide support for that position by showing that:

first, note "this announcement imported NOT that the person was to be sacrificed." this contradicts your claim. second, a previous sentence that you conveniently omitted notes "the devotee accompanying his vow with a solemn imprecation on himself not to fail in accomplishing his declared purpose." the emphasized words outline that we are talking about someone devoting himself.

the first point outlines that the announcement does not indict a person to death-sacrifice. the second point outlines that the consecration falls on the person who has made the committment, not someone else. this should be clear enough to support that you are misrepresenting the passage by claiming it advocates human death sacrifice.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
No, it does not. At least, the section we were discussing (the story of Adam and Eve) does not: and if there IS another section of Genesis that DOES say this somewhere, you have not presented it. I suspect that you cannot: that, as usual, you have nothing to present.
ok, we disagree. if you think genesis does not portray God that way, state your supporting verses.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
No, you did not. You merely HOPE that these words have your desired alternative meanings, you have not DEMONSTRATED that they do.
ok, we disagree. i did show how the passage is interpreted by christians. you didn't show how that interpretation is incorrect. you merely claim it is. furthermore, there are other such references to Jesus in the OT so the christian case does not hinge on this one passage. i have repeatedly asked you to show why you support one group of jews over the other.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Do you understand the difference between wishful-thinking and demonstration? Apparently not.
for the record, i provided a response and asked you to support your case. all you did was appeal to numbers and ask me to make your case for you.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Yes, it is: an invention of Christian apologists. It doesn't cease to be an "invention" just because an apologist writes it down.
ok, so support your claim. pick a commentary are show it is false.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
This is another source of your confusion: your inability to distinguish between an apologist and a scholar. This goes to the very heart of the issue. A Christian apologist will seek to pretend
it is not a case of "pretending". it is a case of interpretation. some of the jews got that Jesus was the messiah, some didn't. which group is right i ask you?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
that Isaiah 53 is a messianic prophecy.
isaiah 53 is not the only OT messianic prophecy.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
A Jewish apologist will seek to claim that it is not. A scholar who is neither Christian nor Jewish DOES NOT CARE, and will simply read what is written (and compare this with whatever pre-Christian tradition he can find regarding what was or wasn't originally considered messianic).
earlier, you set up the jewish scholars to be authoritative in regards to their religion. "I have already explained WHY the Jews (most of them) are more probably correct: because it's reasonable to suppose that they understand THEIR religion."

this stands in stark contradiction to the case you are now making that they are biased in their apology of their religion and that non-jewish scholars are actually the ones to be trusted in regards to the jewish-christian split. the fact of the matter is that even secular scholars are biased in their interpretation.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Again, anyone can see that I have tackled this subject, and that you cannot do so. There are two timeframes, depending on whether you use the Masoretic or the Septuagint genealogies.
i have "tackled" the issue enough to know that there are more than two theories.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You were invited to contribute, and your failure to do so was noticed.
as i have said, since the flood can't be accurately dated at this time (supported by the wide range of theories), the issue is mere speculation.

i notice that in your commencement, you fail to account for several theories. one being biblical support for a local flood which is corroborated by a possible meteor at that time and corresponding "local" verbiagein the bible. another is that the geneaologies in genesis aren't meant to be a complete family tree, but an abridgement which is corroborated by the flexibility of the hebrew word "!b". given the above, there is just too much room for any speculation to have significantly more validity than any other.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
In summary: it is obvious that you have nothing of substance to contribute to this thread, and haven't said anything of note for some time now. This "discussion" is essentially over. I'm not sure why you continue to post (when you find yourself in a hole, it's advisable to stop digging), but I see no reason to continue, and I will use this forum's "ignore" facility to bring this to a close (at least for a while: I won't be able to read your posts, but I'll "un-ignore" you if you participate in the discussion of the dating of Noah's Flood,
i gave my specific reasons why i don't want to get drawn into another egyptian miracles discussion with you because you won't do the research to consider appropriate alternatives as outlined above. you'll just end up asking me to support both sides of an issue you brought up like you did with messianic prophecy.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
or if a separate discussion of Jewish messianic prophecies begins).
i've been ready and waiting

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Goddbye for now. [places bfniii on "ignore"]
for the record, you have:
  • misrepresented my position on multiple occasions
  • refused to do independent study of the egyptian miracles and the flood
  • failed to provide support for your use of the word "immediately" in the exodus account
  • failed to answer what is good or evil
  • failed to answer why you think the jews are more correct than the christians regarding messianic prophecy. remember, you brought it up.
  • failed to answer why you used an appeal to numbers regarding messianic prophecy
  • failed to answer the special pleading employed regarding the jews being authoritative enough to know better than christians (who were jews, btw) the messianic prophecy but not enough to know the monotheistic/polytheistic origins of their own religion

this isn't a complete catalogue, but it is representative of some outstanding issues
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Old 10-10-2005, 01:59 PM   #324
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Where in Wikipedia?
Book of Ezekiel

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Upon what evidence did your sources date the Tyre prophecy, if that is what they really tried to do? Did Ezekiel write his prophecies down on paper, or on clay or stone tablets? If he wrote them down on paper, those original records are long gone. If he wrote them down on clay or stone tablets, are the tablets in existence today? If the Tyre prophecy was actually first written in say 450 B.C., what would have distinguished it from having been written in 587 B.C.?
this is a point i brought up in a couple of other threads. how do we know anything from antiquity is true? i'm not asking about the scrolls/tablets themselves but what is written on them.
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Old 10-10-2005, 02:13 PM   #325
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Quote:
Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
Vast majority??? So you admit that god allows the innocent to suffer.
certainly. i have provided several reasons why this occurs.

Quote:
Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
If you believe that the unborn are guilty of anything, I won't argue with you since your belief is "beyond belief."
so a person should be exempt from any suffering until they are guilty of some infraction? first, why? second, what kinds of infractions are you referring to?

Quote:
Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
That god can't prevent suffering without producing adverse effects is obviously a clear indication that god is not all-powerful. I have no problem with that view. Do you?
i have not said that God is incapable of producing those circumstances. what i have said is that they don't apply to us in this life. according to christianity, there are reasons why we experience suffering in this life.

Quote:
Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
Do you admit that your god can't do anything about suffereing because if god did so, something worse might happen? If you admit to this, you indeed have a strange view of god.
i'm not sure i'm following this. have i given you a reason to believe i have that idea of God?

Quote:
Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
My guess is that your god--if that god exists--not only doesn't prevent suffering but actually causes that suffering and enjoys every moment of it.
so far, the only support you have provided for this idea is that suffering exists. i have asked you why you think, if there is a God, He doesn't have a good reason for allowing it. additionally, what makes you think He enjoys it?
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Old 10-10-2005, 02:23 PM   #326
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rlogan
Good Lord what tripe. Hall of fame gibberish for sure:
RLOGAN! what have you been up to lately? i haven't heard from you in months. let's see what insightful insults you have for me this time.

Quote:
Originally Posted by rlogan
Man's ideas about God change. Therefore it's been planned by God.
yeah, it couldn't be that we are learning what His plan is from Him .

Quote:
Originally Posted by rlogan
Doesn't follow, but one has got to be proud of dressing up a turd in such fine rhetorical silk here.
you've done better. ok, you're not warmed up yet.

i didn't expect you to have anything substantive to say here.

Quote:
Originally Posted by rlogan
Most systematic tarot card readers put them on the table face up. But not all of them.
interesting. not sure what it has to do with the point. meds must be kicking in.

Quote:
Originally Posted by rlogan
Excessive? Oh, that's being charitable. I don't see any point other than speculative musings about an egocentric sky-daddy.
more vacuous typing.....

Quote:
Originally Posted by rlogan
Got to marvel at the energy expended on redundant piffle:

"If god knew everything and had what we call a knowledge of stuff..."
i was trying to explain it thoroughly for those who are "christian-challenged".

Quote:
Originally Posted by rlogan
...then he would, like - know what to do. :thumbs:
in the words of keanu reeves "whoa".

another slice of time well-spent, rlogan. thanks for contributing.
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Old 10-10-2005, 06:06 PM   #327
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
RLOGAN! what have you been up to lately?
Jail. Extreme wilderness supercub expeditions. Rampaging on a bulldozer. Eating moose every day.

Quote:
let's see what insightful insults you have for me this time.
If I wrote what I actually thought we'd be talking hall of fame moderation material.


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yeah, it couldn't be that we are learning what His plan is from Him .
Submit evidence. Like God, for example. That would be good evidence.

What's that sound? Oh - hell is freezing over.



Quote:
i was trying to explain it thoroughly for those who are "christian-challenged".
Thorough? Words like "verbose" and "pretentious" come to mind.


Quote:
in the words of keanu reeves "whoa".
I don't watch TV or movies so I don't know who this is.

Quote:
another slice of time well-spent, rlogan. thanks for contributing.

[self-edited]
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Old 10-10-2005, 10:58 PM   #328
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
so far, the only support you have provided for this idea is that suffering exists. i have asked you why you think, if there is a God, He doesn't have a good reason for allowing it. additionally, what makes you think He enjoys it?
If god is all-powerful then god could prevent suffering without causing more serious harm as a result.

God does not stop suffering, even of the innocent, who you agree are indeed innocent, since how can embryos be guilty of anything.

Therefore god, being all powerful and being able to prevent suffering, but not deigning to do so, must truly enjoy watching the agonies of leprosy, spina bifida, smallpox, death by drowning in floods like the Indian Ocean tsunami, being crushed to death by the recent Kashmir earthquake, etc.

If you continue to believe that there is a good reason for suffering, which suffering your god doesn't wish to avoid, then I seriously question your moral character.
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Old 10-11-2005, 05:02 AM   #329
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Update:

A week has gone by, and there's still no post from bfniii on the Alternative Biblical dates for the Flood? thread.

Meanwhile, a thread on Why do Jews deny Christ as the Messiah? has started in GRD.

I will keep bfniii on "ignore" until he posts on one of those threads.
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Old 10-11-2005, 05:45 AM   #330
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When it comes to "errors" in the Bible, I think I've found two:

In the Exodus tale of the Ten Plagues, the Egyptian livestock and cattle keep getting wiped out, only to be brought back to life to be wiped out all over again by the next plague.

At the end of the Book of Joshua, the Israelites have conquered all of Canaan, effectively wiping out every man, woman and child who inhabited the land. Then, when we turn to the Book of Judges, we find that the Israelites have NOT destroyed all the Canaanites, and that they are still actually at war with them.

How do apologists deal with these obvious discrepancies?
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