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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
ANOTHER evasion, and ANOTHER falsehood.
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could you please point out HOW my response is evasion or false? i provided a response which answers the question you pose.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
I have REPEATEDLY pointed out the problem, and you have REPEATEDLY stonewalled.
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how am i stonewalling when i am providing responses to you and you don't explain how you feel they are inadequate? it sounds like you are the one stonewalling.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
It is quite obvious that YOU cannot answer. And, if you were aware of a workable answer, I think you would have attempted it by now.
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i have provided several answers. i understand you don't like them.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You are, as usual, either misrepresenting or misunderstanding the situation: I KNOW about the secular theories regarding the origins of the Egyptian "miracles", but those theories aren't based on an inerrantist position, and don't attempt to fit them into the actual Biblical narrative: they cannot account for the miraculous TIMING of the Egyptian priests, and make no attempt to do so.
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timing is something i have asked you about on multiple occasions. you used the word immediate. why do you use that word?
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
If there IS an inerrantist version that works, you have not presented it, and it is quite obvious by now that you have nothing to present.
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i am not trying to represent an inerrantist position. i am trying to point out possibilities.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Why would any invader seek to break down ordinary house walls?
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maybe because the people within the walls were the enemy or because they belonged to the enemy?
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
No, it isn't.
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ok. we agree to disagree.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
There are several posters here for whom English is not their first language, but none of them show the bizarre pattern of basic language errors that you do. I suspect that you would be equally incapable of comprehending in ANY language: that your difficulty lies elsewhere.
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i have no difficulty with the passage whatsoever. i understand that God was describing specific actions that would be taken against tyre by Him.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Our sense of ALTRUISM (the "social instinct" which evolution accounts for) allows us to do this.
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allows us to do what? once again, you are being asked whether a particular act can be described as good or evil. for example, suicide bombers are altruistic to islamic extremists. are they right or wrong?
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Of course it does! It isn't 100% effective, but "less than 100%" does not mean "nonexistent".
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which brings us back to the original conflict. sometimes we act selflessly, sometimes we don't. why the inconsistency? if the social instinct exists, why isn't it effective in every case? there is an even deeper conflict. people have always fought for land. as one group grows in size, more land is required for sustanence. however, the expansion may encroach on another group's territory. is the encroachment right or wrong?
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You are STILL arguing that freewill requires ignorance,
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not at all. God told adam not to eat from the tree. adam was not ignorant.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
and this is somehow a "good thing":
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the injunction itself is neither good nor bad, it is neutral. our response to it is either in compliance with the injunction or not. that is what is good or bad.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
the freedom to make erroneous decisions based on false information.
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what false information? we know the consequences of our choices.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
This is the only "freedom" that would be taken away by God-implanted information.
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if the "God-implanted information" is ineluctable and compulsory, then we would be without freedom. you propose that God educate us on suffering to the extent that we would know it so well as to never choose it. the difference between that proposal and actually experiencing pain is mere semantics. God could give us some kind of foreknowledge of any painful consequences but that would be obviation and would constitute a violation of freewill. it is all coercive and in the end we would be stripped of a valuable human experience. concordantly, this dovetails with the above point that sometimes we cause others pain when trying to avoid pain ourselves. the converse is also true regarding altruism, we cause ourselves pain in order to relieve it for others. so, which information is God to provide us, that which saves ourselves or others? a very convoluted proposition at best.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You would still have the freedom to make informed choices:
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we have that now!
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Incorrect. What part of the phrase "God-implanted knowledge" do you not understand?
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whether it's "God-implanted knowledge" or not is irrelevant. it arrived in our brain by some means other than
our choice. furthermore, your reply doesn't address the point that the pain we experience is cognitive information. if God puts it in our brain, we still experience pain.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Wrong as usual. THIS discussion isn't about "punishment" (just or otherwise): it's about human sacrifice as a gift to God. You have said that you don't have a problem with it,
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why don't you expound on what problem you have with numbers 31?
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
AND you've said that this God is "awful".
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i don't recall saying that.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You were specifically asked to provide support for your unique "adult sacrificial volunteers" fantasy, and THIS is the passage you cited in response. Now you have abandoned your position.
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i don't think you understood my response. i am maintaining that the passage in question does not refer to human sacrifice, except the part about holding the guilty accountible for their actions. that has been my position from the beginning. i did indeed provide support for that position by showing that:
first, note "this announcement imported
NOT that the person was to be sacrificed." this contradicts your claim. second, a previous sentence that you conveniently omitted notes "the devotee accompanying
his vow with a solemn imprecation
on himself not to fail in accomplishing
his declared purpose." the emphasized words outline that we are talking about someone devoting himself.
the first point outlines that the announcement does not indict a person to death-sacrifice. the second point outlines that the consecration falls on the person who has made the committment, not someone else. this should be clear enough to support that you are misrepresenting the passage by claiming it advocates human death sacrifice.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
No, it does not. At least, the section we were discussing (the story of Adam and Eve) does not: and if there IS another section of Genesis that DOES say this somewhere, you have not presented it. I suspect that you cannot: that, as usual, you have nothing to present.
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ok, we disagree. if you think genesis does not portray God that way, state your supporting verses.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
No, you did not. You merely HOPE that these words have your desired alternative meanings, you have not DEMONSTRATED that they do.
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ok, we disagree. i did show how the passage is interpreted by christians. you didn't show how that interpretation is incorrect. you merely claim it is. furthermore, there are other such references to Jesus in the OT so the christian case does not hinge on this one passage. i have repeatedly asked you to show why you support one group of jews over the other.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Do you understand the difference between wishful-thinking and demonstration? Apparently not.
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for the record, i provided a response and asked you to support your case. all you did was appeal to numbers and ask me to make your case for you.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Yes, it is: an invention of Christian apologists. It doesn't cease to be an "invention" just because an apologist writes it down.
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ok, so support your claim. pick a commentary are show it is false.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
This is another source of your confusion: your inability to distinguish between an apologist and a scholar. This goes to the very heart of the issue. A Christian apologist will seek to pretend
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it is not a case of "pretending". it is a case of interpretation. some of the jews got that Jesus was the messiah, some didn't. which group is right i ask you?
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
that Isaiah 53 is a messianic prophecy.
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isaiah 53 is not the only OT messianic prophecy.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
A Jewish apologist will seek to claim that it is not. A scholar who is neither Christian nor Jewish DOES NOT CARE, and will simply read what is written (and compare this with whatever pre-Christian tradition he can find regarding what was or wasn't originally considered messianic).
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earlier, you set up the jewish scholars to be authoritative in regards to their religion. "I have already explained WHY the Jews (most of them) are more probably correct: because it's reasonable to suppose that they understand THEIR religion."
this stands in stark contradiction to the case you are now making that they are biased in their apology of their religion and that non-jewish scholars are actually the ones to be trusted in regards to the jewish-christian split. the fact of the matter is that even secular scholars are biased in their interpretation.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Again, anyone can see that I have tackled this subject, and that you cannot do so. There are two timeframes, depending on whether you use the Masoretic or the Septuagint genealogies.
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i have "tackled" the issue enough to know that there are more than two theories.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You were invited to contribute, and your failure to do so was noticed.
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as i have said, since the flood can't be accurately dated at this time (supported by the wide range of theories), the issue is mere speculation.
i notice that in your commencement, you fail to account for several theories. one being biblical support for a local flood which is corroborated by a possible meteor at that time and corresponding "local" verbiagein the bible. another is that the geneaologies in genesis aren't meant to be a complete family tree, but an abridgement which is corroborated by the flexibility of the hebrew word "!b". given the above, there is just too much room for any speculation to have significantly more validity than any other.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
In summary: it is obvious that you have nothing of substance to contribute to this thread, and haven't said anything of note for some time now. This "discussion" is essentially over. I'm not sure why you continue to post (when you find yourself in a hole, it's advisable to stop digging), but I see no reason to continue, and I will use this forum's "ignore" facility to bring this to a close (at least for a while: I won't be able to read your posts, but I'll "un-ignore" you if you participate in the discussion of the dating of Noah's Flood,
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i gave my specific reasons why i don't want to get drawn into another egyptian miracles discussion with you because you won't do the research to consider appropriate alternatives as outlined above. you'll just end up asking me to support both sides of an issue
you brought up like you did with messianic prophecy.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
or if a separate discussion of Jewish messianic prophecies begins).
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i've been ready and waiting
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Goddbye for now. [places bfniii on "ignore"]
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for the record, you have:
- misrepresented my position on multiple occasions
- refused to do independent study of the egyptian miracles and the flood
- failed to provide support for your use of the word "immediately" in the exodus account
- failed to answer what is good or evil
- failed to answer why you think the jews are more correct than the christians regarding messianic prophecy. remember, you brought it up.
- failed to answer why you used an appeal to numbers regarding messianic prophecy
- failed to answer the special pleading employed regarding the jews being authoritative enough to know better than christians (who were jews, btw) the messianic prophecy but not enough to know the monotheistic/polytheistic origins of their own religion
this isn't a complete catalogue, but it is representative of some outstanding issues