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Old 05-29-2005, 05:58 AM   #31
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Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus
I'm not sure if that is a regular view of Peshitta origin, although neither the Peshitta Primacists or folks from my view would generally see that.

I do know that the "Peshitto" the Syrian Orthodox Church adaption of the Peshitta, is often considered a (relatively minor) a revision of the Peshitta to make it align more closely with Greek text of their day. I think that includes the Harklean manuscripts.
I thought I had read something like this in George Kiraz' Comparative Edition of the Syriac Gospels, or Jan Wilson's The Old Syriac Gospels: Studies and Comparative Translations, but I may have misread as I was speed-reading in the local seminary library.
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Old 05-29-2005, 06:14 AM   #32
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Originally Posted by judge
I think the Old syriac are in fact the translation done by Rabulla in the fourth or fifth century.

Waht we have left of the old syriac bears the fingerprint of Rabulla. They carry the phrase "evangellion de mepharasse"
Rather, I believe it was thought that the Peshitta was done by Rabulla, but that belief appears to be changing:

Metzger/Ehrman - The Text of the New Testament 4th ed.
"The Peshitta version, of Syriac Vulgate, of the New Testament (SyrP) was prepared about the beginning of the fifth century, probably in order to supplant the divergent, competing Old Syriac translations. ....Until recently, scholars thought that Rabbula, Bishop of Edessa (c. A.D. 411-31), was responsible for the Peshitta; but is more likely that his revision marked an intermediate stage between the Old Syriac text and the final form of the Peshitta." <- It seems, from a footnote, that this information originates from Arthur Voobus' Studies in the History of the Gospel Text in Syriac.
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Old 05-29-2005, 04:28 PM   #33
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Originally Posted by Haran
Rather, I believe it was thought that the Peshitta was done by Rabulla, but that belief appears to be changing:
As I understand it the peshitta was originally thought to be very old. The view was revised by F.C. Burkitt who thoerised that the peshitta was the work of Rabulla.
This idea was obviously wrong for several reasons. The reason Metzger alludes to I beleive is that the peshitta was used by both the SOC and the COE. The COE would never have used the peshitta if it had been the work of Rabulla as he was their enemy. They referred to him as the tyrant of edessa.

The peshitta could not be the work of Rabulla also because COE monk Aphrahat quotes it word for word on many occaisions . Aphrahat never ever quotes the Old Syriac word for word although at times his paraphrase may have similar of the same words in places (as one would expect in paraphrase).

Paul Younan of peshitta.org has a theory that the Old syriac was in fact the work of Rabulla. I will reiterayte some of his arguments here.

In a biography of rabulla from that period we find.

Quote:
By the wisdom of God that was in him he translated the New Testament from Greek into Syriac because of its variations, exactly as it was.' (Rabul episcopi Edesseni, Baleei, aliorumque opera selecta, Oxford 1865, ed. J. J. Overbeck)
Rabulla himself wrote.

Quote:
'The presbyters and deacons shall see to it that in all the churches a copy of the Evangelion de Mepharreshe shall be available and read'. (Th. Zahn, Forschungen zur Geschichte des neutestamentlichen Kanons, i. (1881), p. 105.)
The ending of the Old Syriac gospel of john reads.

Quote:
04rpmd Jwylgnw0 Ml4

"Shlam Evangelion de Mepharreshe"

"Here ends the Evangelion de Mepharreshe"
(c.f., Syriac Text at the Comprehensive Aramaic Lexicon)
In other words the Evangelion de Mepharreshe or seperated gospels (as opposed to the diatessaron) is the work of rabulla.

He did his own version because he disagreed with the theology of the COE!

For the same reason the SOC version of the peshitta, the peshitto, changed some verses (Hebrews 2:9 and Acts 20:28) to reflect their theology.

These quotes and the argument it self can be found here
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Old 05-31-2005, 12:40 AM   #34
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Originally Posted by Judge
...commentators have pointed out that matthew indicates there are 3X14 or 42 generations
Quote:
Originally Posted by Amaleq13
So we are still left with 13 generations that are claimed to be 14?
PESHITTA ORIGIN
First, let me just say that my sense on the Peshitta is the earlier theories scholars had, 100 years ago, were right. That the Peshitta was a fairly early edition, maybe around A.D.200, and that the A.D.400 date was an artificial late creation because the Peshitta is actually relatively close to the Byzantine text and an A.D.200 date throws a big monkey wrench in all the alexandrian text and lucian rescension theories. So the Peshitta date was moved back to match 'modern scientific textcrit'. If anyone has real evidences for the 400 date, I will be very interested.

MATTHEW GENERATIONS
While I know there are some other harmonies offerred , the generations really looks like one of the simplest textual harmonies.

The flaw is thinking, as Judge above, of Matthew as saying "3x14 = 42".
Matthew simply never says that.

Matthew 1:17
So all the generations from Abraham to David are fourteen generations; and from David until the carrying away into Babylon are fourteen generations; and from the carrying away into Babylon unto Christ are fourteen generations.

Some potential scriptural harmonies are so simple that they are overlooked by the scholarly and wise.

http://www.jba.gr/Articles/nkjv_jbaother2.htm
THE GENEALOGIES OF JESUS CHRIST - Anastasios Kioulachoglou
Most people read the 3 fourteen of the above passage and instead of trying to find those three fourteen they try to find a single forty two (42). Really, where does the Word speak for forty two generations? Nowhere. The only that it speaks is for three groups of fourteen generations each.
The 2nd group is from David to the captivity in Babylon. The mistake of many is that though the Word says "FROM DAVID" they start to count from Solomon. Following the boundaries of the Word we have:
"from David until the captivity in Babylon are fourteen generations"
"David, Solomon, Roboam, Abia, Asa, Josaphat, Joram, Ozias, Joatham, Achaz, Ezekias, Mannasses, Amon, Josias"
This is the regal group of fourteen generations since all in this group were kings2. The group starts with David and closes with Josias the last real king3 of the kingdom. (more information on site)

Shalom,
Praxeas
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Old 05-31-2005, 03:07 AM   #35
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Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus
I do know that the "Peshitto" the Syrian Orthodox Church adaption of the Peshitta, is often considered a (relatively minor) a revision of the Peshitta to make it align more closely with Greek text of their day. I think that includes the Harklean manuscripts.

Shalom,
Praxeus
http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Messianic_Apologetic/
IIUC Peshitto is simply the pronunciation of Peshitta among the Syrian Orthodox.

The consonantal text of the Peshitta/Peshitto is almost identical among Syrian Orthodox and Chaldeans/Nestorians.

The Harklean manuscripts represent a quite drastic revision of the Peshitta slavishly conformed to the Greek. In its present form it dates from around 616 and is the work of Thomas of Harkel.

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Old 06-01-2005, 03:12 AM   #36
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Originally Posted by andrewcriddle
IIUC Peshitto is simply the pronunciation of Peshitta among the Syrian Orthodox.
However the Eastern Peshitta people point out that the SOC bible has some differences, and they consider their version to be a later Greek influenced Peshitta variant, the Peshitto, making the vocalization difference into a name difference.

Quote:
Originally Posted by andrewcriddle
The consonantal text of the Peshitta/Peshitto is almost identical among Syrian Orthodox and Chaldeans/Nestorians.
Understood, but some Eastern folks consider those differences that are there as being significant, even if just Acts 20:28 and Hebrews 2:9 - Of course there is also the pesky 5 books. I believe the SOC fully considers them scripture.

Quote:
Originally Posted by andrewcriddle
The Harklean manuscripts represent a quite drastic revision of the Peshitta slavishly conformed to the Greek. In its present form it dates from around 616 and is the work of Thomas of Harkel.
Is the Harklean being used by SOC or others at this time ? Is it an active version. Where would one see in translation a few of the differences ? I think they might have put in the Pericope Adultera, which is the biggest Peshitta/Byzantine difference -- my memory is vague though.

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Praxeus
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Old 06-01-2005, 11:07 AM   #37
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Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus
Is the Harklean being used by SOC or others at this time ? Is it an active version. Where would one see in translation a few of the differences ? I think they might have put in the Pericope Adultera, which is the biggest Peshitta/Byzantine difference -- my memory is vague though.

Shalom,
Praxeus
http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Messianic_Apologetic/
IIUC the Pericope Adultera is not part of the original form of the Harklean text, however it was translated into Syriac at around the same time as the Harklean revision, and often occurs in Harklean manuscripts (and occasionally in late Peshitta manuscripts)

Andrew Criddle
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Old 06-01-2005, 04:22 PM   #38
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Originally Posted by praxeus
If anyone has real evidences for the 400 date, I will be very interested.

The peshitta is clearly prior to this becuase Aphrahat quotes it word for word on many occaisions. Aphrahat never quotes anyhting but the peshitta word for word.
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Old 06-01-2005, 04:24 PM   #39
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Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus

Is the Harklean being used by SOC or others at this time ? Is it an active version. Where would one see in translation a few of the differences ?
Try www.peshitta.com for the SOC version
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Old 06-02-2005, 03:35 AM   #40
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Originally Posted by judge
The peshitta is clearly prior to this becuase Aphrahat quotes it word for word on many occaisions. Aphrahat never quotes anyhting but the peshitta word for word.
Hi Judge, Aphrahat may be good proof for the Peshitta being used in the 300's. And that would match the earlier theories before the Westcott-Hort view of the text became predominant.

However, when I check the scholarship on the net there are folks that indicate some Aphrahat usage of the Diatessorian. If so that would disagree with "Aphrahat never quotes anything but the Peshitta..."

Apparently his works are extant in Armenian, which of course adds a little layer of complexity in analyzing quotes.

I have found it stated clearly that Aphrahat used the Peshitta Tanach, but of course that is not particularly significant to the thread.

Can you find either some exact quotes (English translation is fine by me) or some scholarship references supporting your view above. Please don't just quote Andrew Gabriel Roth or Chirstopher Lancaster or even Paul Younan, unless they give scholarship references or primary sources, or quotes, and expect it to be accepted as strong evidence or proof. (Those three names are supportting Peshitta Primacy, Paul Younan is the one who is most well acquainted with the Aramaic and the Peshita text).

Thanks.

Shalom,
Praxeas
http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Messianic_Apologetic/

PS. Just to be clear, on a doctrinal level I would much prefer proof that Aphrahat quoted the Peshitta, as it would help destroy some textual theories popular today which I consider very erroneous. However, I would need some hard evidence before aggressively taking that stance :-)
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