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07-08-2010, 07:40 AM | #221 | |
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AFAIK, the phrase "word of the lord" is never used in reference to something a human being said to another human being in the OT. Which is probably one of the reasons why Philo was able to see the word [of the lord] as a second deity. In Paul's case: Is this a saying of Jesus? |
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07-08-2010, 08:22 AM | #222 | ||||||
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Mt 16:28 - Quote:
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Joh 5:25 - Quote:
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07-08-2010, 12:39 PM | #223 | ||
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Of course, I don't have a source for this - it's just hearsay. But according to how biblical historians work, anonymous hearsay is primary evidence |
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07-08-2010, 02:18 PM | #224 | ||
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The old formula of Christianity being born among the Jews and maturing among gentiles seems true when comparing this book to Paul. Gentiles are included and in fact are far more numerous than the Jews in this story, yet the imagery and language seem straight out of the Hebrew scriptures. Then there's the epistle to the Hebrews, seemingly yet another version of Jewish-Christianity, more 'philosophical' |
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07-08-2010, 06:15 PM | #225 | |
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It would appear the Jesus story started outside of Judea and many decades after he was supposed to have ascended to heaven during the reign of Tiberius. |
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07-09-2010, 11:07 AM | #226 | |
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If you want to claim it's all just spiritual language, I think it's up to you to demonstrate how Paul could have derived these ideas from the pre-Hadrian milieu using specifics. |
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07-09-2010, 12:26 PM | #227 | |||
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How about Theudas - or even Judas the Galilean? Quote:
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07-09-2010, 12:31 PM | #228 | ||
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Toto, here is what posting on-topic might actually look like as opposed to the years long smear campaign against Acharya S that is the norm here:
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07-09-2010, 12:39 PM | #229 | ||
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07-09-2010, 01:21 PM | #230 | |
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McGrath has signficantly lowered my opinion of those who hold PhD's in NT studies. |
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