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Old 04-29-2007, 06:50 PM   #11
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Originally Posted by Sauron View Post
Who cares?

The bible has historical mistakes in it. Therefore, using the bible to try and prove the bible is a waste of time.
I'M STILL WAITING. Just give me your three favorite all time BIG BIBLE MISTAKES. I want to know what they are. There is usually an explanation that escapes most people or they've made an error. Just wanted to see what you're talking about. Seems to me you should pull out 30 or 40 right out of the hat from memory. I'll just take three.

Thanks.

LG47
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Old 04-29-2007, 08:00 PM   #12
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ROFL! You have no rebuttal, because there is none.
None is necessary, because your chronology has already-identified holes in it. Until you address those holes, you are dead in the water.

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You'll find that I am the *last* person that you want to be dishonest or sloppy with.

Great. So where is your personal comment/rebuttal about Line 3 and line 14
Apparently the Messiah can't read.

1. As I said before: you aren't going to get anywhere arguing your homemade chronology with me, until you fix the holes already identified in it.

2. Your tried to claim that you were not using Newton as a historical source. The citation above (in red) proves that you were.

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I am familiar with both. But I am also aware that the bible makes many historical mistakes. Same with Josephus, who is only repeating what he learned from his own religion. That means Josephus is not an independent source.

The Bible makes no mistakes.
1. It makes plenty of mistakes. So do you.

2. You're dodging my point: Josephus' recapitulation of the Old Testament is not an independent source.

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If it does, why not just, off your head, list five absolute historical mistakes. I haven't found any.
1. Didn't your mommy tell you not to ask for more food until you've finished what's on your plate already? You've already opened up a half-dozen issues that you haven't been able to defend so far. As soon as you do that, then you'll be in a position to discuss other items.

2. In addition, it's been established that instead of sticking to the discussion and defending your points, you prefer to start new threads on unrelated topics. There's no way I'm going to enable that type of ducking and evasion, by opening up even more topics for you to hide behind.

3. Gee - a self-proclaimed messiah who rearranges history and ignores physical/ archaeological evidence. If you can't find a contradiction in the bible is evidence more of the sheer intensity of your delusions than any thing else.

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No, from the standpoint of history and the records supporting these events.

Just "for the record", have you heard of "The Delian Problem" blather blather blather....
Another of your historical fairy tales that has already been dispensed with. As I said: you aren't going to be allowed to introduce your homemade chronology as long as there are outstanding questions and massive holes in it.

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By the victory in 550 of the Persian chief Cyrus II the Great over his suzerain, Astyages of Media, the Medes were made subject to the Persians. In the new Achaemenian Empire they retained a prominent position; in honour and war they stood next to the Persians, and their court ceremonial was adopted by the new sovereigns, who in the summer months resided in Ecbatana.

Note the clear power shift to Persia. The Medes' favored status would last less than 30 years.

Thanks, I appreciate this. But if Asytages was the king of the MEDES and he was the grandfather of Cyrus per Herodotus/Xenophon. He is the son-in-law per Ctesias. Where would you stand on this. What Cyrus himself part Mede?
1. Who cares if he was, or wasn't? I think I know where you're going with that question; it's not going to work for you.

2. Astyages as Cyrus' grandfather is questionable anyhow; just another legendary point in the grand Cyrus legend. Britannica:

Akkadian Ishtumegu the last king of the Median empire (reigned 585–550 BC). According to Herodotus, the Achaemenian Cyrus the Great was Astyages' grandson through his daughter Mandane, but this relationship is probably legendary. According to Babylonian inscriptions, Cyrus, king of Anshan (in southwestern Iran), began war against Astyages in 553 BC; in 550 the Median troops rebelled, and Astyages was taken prisoner. Then Cyrus occupied and plundered Ecbatana, the Median capital. A somewhat different account of these events is given by the Greek writer Ctesias.

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1. In the first place, that's a pretty flimsy peg to try and hang your argument upon. Whether someone speaking or writing puts one term before, or after, the other hardly indicates a level of importance. It may refer to any number of things: chronological first contact, for example.

You're the one who commented on it. I was just using your line...
On the contrary, Messiah O'<edit>. You're the one who tried to make it sound like the ordering of those two nationalities somehow indicated which one was senior and which one was junior. Recognize these words in blue? You should; they're yours:

When conquering Babylon, the dual-empire are listed as the "MEDES and the Persians" not the other way around.

Didn't I tell you not to be sloppy or dishonest with me?

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2. In the second place, you've only presented one source that uses both nationality terms together - and that source is the bible. But as indicated, there are mistakes in bible chronology, so trying to use the bible to prove the bible won't work here;

There are ZERO mistakes blah blah blah
There are dozens of mistakes. We are working through five or six right now.

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EST 1:19 If it please the king, let there go a royal commandment from him, and let it be written among the laws of the Persians and the Medes, that it be not altered, That Vashti come no more before king Ahasuerus; and let the king give her royal estate unto another that is better than she.

The Book of Esther is not inspired and not an official part of the Bible.
1. I have no evidence that the bible is inspired in the first place, considering its mistakes;
2. It is an official part of the bible, as far as the *overwhelming* majority of the Christian world is concerned - so the complaints from a black transvestite messiah don't exactly worry me;
3. Given that reality, Esther is as much a historic document as any other bible text is. You can't have it both ways.

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Now about your THREE FAVORITE BIBLE CHRONOLOGY MISTAKES?
Already told you -- when you plug the holes in your current claims, then -- and only then -- will you be in a position to open up new discussions with me.
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Old 04-29-2007, 08:02 PM   #13
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I'M STILL WAITING.
"Still waiting"? What the fuck are you talking about?

Your previous post was at 6:48pm. You post where you are STILL WAITING was made at 6:50pm. I'm supposed to jump up and respond to you within a two-minute timeframe? Give me a break.

Besides, you've already been told quite clearly: until you defend your already-existing claims and plug the holes in those arguments, you're in a sorry position to be taking on any more work. Nor am I going to enable your dodging and evasion by deliberately opening up the topic of more bible mistakes.

So if you want to discuss those mistakes, you're going to have to fix your current busted-ass arguments first.
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Old 04-30-2007, 07:00 AM   #14
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Daniel/the Bible are not confused. There were two "Darius" kings, one was "Darius, the Mede" who ruled immediately after Cyrus and he overthrew Babylon.
According only to Daniel.

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When Babylon was conquered they were conquered by the coalition between the "MEDES and the Persians" with the Medes the more dominant empire.
You're confusing the Babylonian Empire with the Assyrian Empire.
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Old 04-30-2007, 07:27 PM   #15
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According only to Daniel.



You're confusing the Babylonian Empire with the Assyrian Empire.
What? The Persians didn't conquer Babylon? The Persians conquered Assyria?

I don't think so.

LG47
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Old 04-30-2007, 07:37 PM   #16
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Larsguy47:

How about one citation by a contemporary historian that affirms that Darius the Mede was a real person?

In the absence of this, like your Hebrews' Exodus and Aristotle hot nights with Socrates, you got nothing but your usual bullshit.

One contemporary source. Prediction: you got nothin'.

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Old 04-30-2007, 07:48 PM   #17
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What? The Persians didn't conquer Babylon? The Persians conquered Assyria?

I don't think so.
Yeah, but what you think almost always turns out to be wrong, so who cares?

You failed to read carefully. Nanocyborg was correcting you on your earlier claim that (a) the Medes were involved in the conquest of Babylon as (b) the senior partner. Both (a) and (b) are wrong.

The Medes did, however, share conquest of Assyria with the Chaldean (neo-Babylonian) empire, but that was back in 612 BCE -- seven decades earlier.
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Old 05-01-2007, 01:58 AM   #18
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Yeah, but what you think almost always turns out to be wrong, so who cares?

You failed to read carefully. Nanocyborg was correcting you on your earlier claim that (a) the Medes were involved in the conquest of Babylon as (b) the senior partner. Both (a) and (b) are wrong.

The Medes did, however, share conquest of Assyria with the Chaldean (neo-Babylonian) empire, but that was back in 612 BCE -- seven decades earlier.
As I said, this position cannot be stated emphatically since the Bible lists the "MEDES and Persians" in that order. At the least they were equals and then Persia rose to be the more dominant. But where order is considered to be more significant, the fact that the Medes are listed first is inself a suggestion that the Medes where the greater empire. This is particularly apparent when Darius the Mede became ruler of Babylon making him in charge of that new addition to the Medo-Persian empire, whereas Cyrus remained king of what had already been his kingdom over the Persians.

Further, until Babylon was conquered, the Medes were a great ally of the Babylonians, as you know, the MEDES (not the Persians) assisting in the conquering of Nineveh. This likely was the basis for a state marriage between the Medes and the Babylonians, resulting in the birth of Darius the Mede to the daughter of Nebuchadnezzar and the king of the Medes, Cyaxares the father of Astyages, thus Darius the Mede was the younger half-brother of Astyages.

And as noted, the Greeks often referred to the Persians as "Medes" as well.

LG47
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Old 05-01-2007, 02:03 AM   #19
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Originally Posted by RED DAVE View Post
Larsguy47:

How about one citation by a contemporary historian that affirms that Darius the Mede was a real person?

In the absence of this, like your Hebrews' Exodus and Aristotle hot nights with Socrates, you got nothing but your usual bullshit.

One contemporary source. Prediction: you got nothin'.

RED DAVE

This went right over your head. A citation by Sir Isaac Newton is more pertinent here since it proves the records and concepts available to him at that time, some of which may have vanished or disappeared by now led him to some specific historical presumptions about Darius the Mede and what he did, even clearly understanding the Jews were not released until Cyrus specifically began to rule. Thus though he only gives Darius the Mede a 2-year rule over Babylon, the Jews are still in exile under this 2-year rule. So he was definitely considered to be real in the time of Sir Isaac Newton, which is my only point.

If you think a modern scholar's impression that there was no such person in existence would preempt the fact that people during the time of Sir Isaac Newton seemed to have no question that he was, then that's an interesting theory. My only point was that Sir Isaac Newton seemed to think he was a real character, so does Josephus and so does the Bible.

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Old 05-01-2007, 02:15 AM   #20
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The reason why "Darius the Mede" was invented is simple: both Isaiah and Jeremiah had falsely prophesied that Babylon would be conquered and destroyed by the Medes. Neither anticipated the rise of the Persians, their conquest of the Medes, and their subsequent apparently bloodless capture of Babylon (which wasn't destroyed).

This was an unsuccessful attempt to partially rescue the Bible from a failed prophecy.
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