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Old 08-23-2012, 07:50 AM   #151
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post
We all know what you're trying to do.
I think I've been upfront about why I am asking the question, as I said:

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It's a simple question and I'm curious as to whether there are good answers.
If there are not perhaps we can conclude that the premise is flawed. Or perhaps our answers could lead us to conclude that Jesus really was resurrected IF the premise is true.
I don't see it as pointless yet because of the potential conclusions I mentioned.

You are making good distinctions about spiritual vs physical resurrection. I have no problem with that, but to clarify --the OP really doesn't require that the resurrection believed in INITIALLY was physical. If you have an explanation for why the preacher was initially regarded to be spiritually resurrected and then later was regarded to be physically resurrected, I'm ok with that. Since the more orthodox claim is that he was physically resurrected I also would like to know of possible natural explanations for why that claim survived and thrived.

You have mentioned both scriptures (though not specified by Paul in 1 Cor 15) and revelation as reasons why the resurrection was first believed. That is fine but doesn't explain why they would have seen them as applying to THIS particular preacher who was crucified. I'd be curious as to why HIM and not JTB, Judas the Galilean, etc..

If you feel it is too pointless to post a second time, that's fine. I have plenty of other things to do anyway. Remember, I'd like to believe, but I don't. So one aspect of my 'agenda' is not to get others to believe but rather to see if their disbelief is reasonable.
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Old 08-23-2012, 08:03 AM   #152
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I did the best I could but you still cannot understand what I'm saying. You have a way of looking at it that is so fixed and literal that you are unable to comprehend nuance. This is why you argue with almost everyone on this forum about almost everything they say...
You are posting rhetoric--NO substance. Your response does not require any knowledge of the matter at hand. Why do people argue with you???

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Originally Posted by TedM
..A divine man is something you can't fathom so you are mentally unable to comprehend that those who write about one could have been mythologizing an actual human being. It simple doesn't compute for you.
Don't you even want people to argue that Jesus of the NT had NO real existence??

Why can't you accept that people can make arguments and present evidence for their arguments??

I am ARGUING that Jesus of the NT had NO real existence and that the Jesus cult and story originated in the 2nd century based on the actual Recovered DATED Texts.

You cannot comprehend that people of antiquity, the Greeks and Romans, accepted Mythological characters as Gods and Sons of Gods. You fail to understand that even 1800 years ago that Justin Martyr ADMITTED that the Jesus story is NOT different to the Greek/Roman Myths.

You fail to understand that it was PUBLICLY ADMITTED for hundreds of years that Jesus was FATHERED by a GHOST since the 2nd century based on revovered dated Texts.

First Apology
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And when we say also that the Word, who is the first-birth of God, was produced without sexual union, and that He, Jesus Christ, our Teacher, was crucified and died, and rose again, and ascended into heaven, we propound nothing different from what you believe regarding those whom you esteem sons of Jupiter.
You cannot compute that Jesus was non-historical even when NO author of the Canon acknowledged that they Met Jesus or SAW him when he was on earth.

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Originally Posted by TedM
...You have concluded that there is no such thing as a HJ so any reference to a HJ in the context of canonical writings is something you are unable to understand even. It's a brain malfunction aa. Sorry to say. I give up with trying to help you understand nuance. It must not be in your genes.
Now, tell me what is in your genes?? You are posting rhetoric. You have NO actual evidence for YOUR Jesus.

My argument that Jesus was non-historical is based on actual Written Statements from sources of antiquity.

Over 1800 years ago, the Jesus story was considered Foolishness like the Greek Fables.

Dialogue with Trypho
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...Moreover, in the fables of those who are called Greeks, it is written that Perseus was begotten of Danae, who was a virgin; he who was called among them Zeus having descended on her in the form of a golden shower. And you ought to feel ashamed when you make assertions similar to theirs, and rather[should] say that this Jesus was born man of men................ but do not venture to tell monstrous phenomena, lest you be convicted of talking foolishly like the Greeks."
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Old 08-23-2012, 08:55 AM   #153
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Lots of good stuff here, Toto. Yes, I'll need to deal with it point-by-point.
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The Consensus you're relying on, Joe,
Is weakening regarding gMark being the underlying source. First, most everyone finds that a Passion Narrative came first.
Not everyone.

Early Christian Writings
The existence of a pre-Markan passion narrative has been challenged. The assumption of a pre-Markan passion narrative has been undermined by studies that aim to show that the final three chapters of Mark contain themes developed throughout the Gospel. In The Passion in Mark, Donahue, Robbins, Kelber, Perrin, Dewey, Weeden, and Crossan interpret the passion narrative with the use of "hermeneutical clues" provided in the first thirteen chapters. (p. 153) Kelber states the conclusion to be drawn: "The understanding of Mk 14-16 as a theologically integral part of the Mkan Gospel calls into question the classic form critical thesis concerning an independent and coherent Passion Narrative prior to Mk. Thematically, it is difficult to identify a major non-Mkan thrust or theme in Mk 14-16, let alone extrapolate a coherent pre-Mkan source."
The claim that some identifiable part of Mark is earlier seems. like a typical apologetic ploy to find some possibility of a historical core in Mark.
I have dealt at length with parts of gMark being earlier, six layers or so. But as for the Passion Narrative, it's even in gJohn, with many scholars accepting that it got there from a source. My OP in Gospel Eyewitnesses developed a simple account based on the stylistic analysis of Howard Teeple, an atheist. The thematic references before Mark 14 are thus not relevant to it. Not to mention that the author I propose for the Passion Narrative in gJohn is John Mark, who is also the presumptive author of gMark. Naturally there would be connections if the same person put the whole together from pieces he and others provided.
Here's my version of the original Passion Narrative from Falling Dominoes #243:
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Second, scholars are finally catching up with the Dead Sea Scrolls discovery in 1947 and its evidence that the Gospel of Thomas shows that Q material is in gMark.
The DSS have no mention of gThomas or Mark :huh: What is this about?
Instead of DSS in 1947 I of course meant Nag Hammadi Library in 1946.
Quote:
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... "GattA" (Gospel that even Atheists cannot automaticlly reject for containing portions that by their principles could not have occurred. Happy Toto?).
...
No. There is still no reason to accept the non-supernatural elements of a fairy tale.
I just meant you personally, Toto, satisfied that I went to the silly circumlocutions to avoid your unacceptable "Gospel According to the Atheists". There, I had to say it to answer you.
If by "reason" you mean the Rationalist presupposition that there is no supernatural, you are of course correct. Even without that presumption, whatever is defined as a "fairy tale" would be presumed to give no evidence for the truth of its non-supernatural elements. The fact remains that a non-supernaturalistic source does give evidence towards the factuality of what it relates.
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Old 08-23-2012, 09:59 AM   #154
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Instead of DSS in 1947 I of course meant Nag Hammadi Library in 1946.
How do the NH manuscripts show "that the Gospel of Thomas shows that Q material is in gMark" ??

Quote:
...
If by "reason" you mean the Rationalist presupposition that there is no supernatural, you are of course correct. Even without that presumption, whatever is defined as a "fairy tale" would be presumed to give no evidence for the truth of its non-supernatural elements. The fact remains that a non-supernaturalistic source does give evidence towards the factuality of what it relates.
But you don't have a non-supernaturalistic source - you have a supernaturalistic tale from which you have removed the supernatural elements.

And even if the entire source were rationalistic, an ancient document is still not evidence by itself. We don't treat novels as history.
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Old 08-24-2012, 09:25 PM   #155
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Instead of DSS in 1947 I of course meant Nag Hammadi Library in 1946.
How do the NH manuscripts show "that the Gospel of Thomas shows that Q material is in gMark" ??
The Gospel of Thomas turned out to have to have forty sayings (per Mack in The Lost Gospel) that parallel what is in Q as traditionally defined (i. e., found in both Matthew and Luke), but also thirty (most notably the Parable of the Sower) that are in the Triple-Tradition found in Mark. This shows that the Q Document also contained many sayings in the Synoptics besides those incorporated into just Matthew and Luke. That "shows" the point (short of "proof", of course), and I argue further that Q included narrative material that got not just into Matthew and Luke, but into Mark as well (and I label it as qT), and I relate this to what used to be called the Twelve-Source. As this includes the call of Matthew, I see him as the author and whose name wound up applied to the Gospel of Matthew instead of to just Q (probably not including q2)
Quote:
Quote:
...
If by "reason" you mean the Rationalist presupposition that there is no supernatural, you are of course correct. Even without that presumption, whatever is defined as a "fairy tale" would be presumed to give no evidence for the truth of its non-supernatural elements. The fact remains that a non-supernaturalistic source does give evidence towards the factuality of what it relates.
But you don't have a non-supernaturalistic source - you have a supernaturalistic tale from which you have removed the supernatural elements.
Maybe an analogy will help. If you're eating franks and beans, and you extract just the hot dogs, are they therefore not hot dogs because they were once mixed with beans? Similarly, if one extracts the q1 portion from Luke, isn't its real nature q1 and not Luke?
Quote:
And even if the entire source were rationalistic, an ancient document is still not evidence by itself. We don't treat novels as history.
Yet we can examine the extracted hot dogs to see if they have the nature of hot dogs--and the beans as well. Finding the beans to be beans will not prove the hot dogs not to be hot dogs.

I am presenting in
Early Aramaic Gospels
the four gospels like meat and beans as if with q1 as beef (wherever the verses are from Luke), Johannine Discourses as pork, the Passion Narrative) as lamb, (verses selected from John 18 and 19 except as specifically noted), the latter two both being only in John, and qT as chicken (wherever the verses are from Mark). The first three are non-supernaturalistic, and therefore atheists have no excuse not to read them to see whether true history is there. In addition there is another Aramaic source that is not supernaturalistic, the L Source.
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Old 08-24-2012, 10:24 PM   #156
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and I argue further that Q included narrative material
im sure it did

but redacted for content, and originals lost, one way or the other
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Old 08-24-2012, 11:12 PM   #157
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Try reading the Marcan passages (for qT) in the Early Aramaic Gospels link over in my post #155.
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