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Old 02-17-2006, 08:40 AM   #101
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Originally Posted by TheOpenMind
You have a pre-judged reading of the material we're talking about. You say "myth" (interpretation) instead of using discriptive language for discribing.

That way, it looks like you're simply implying that a myth is treated as a myth (sounding inocuous) when that is precisely what remains to be demonstrated!

Cool!
Unless you are asserting that the resurrection of Jesus actually occurred, then it is a myth.

Jake Jones IV
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Old 02-17-2006, 08:41 AM   #102
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Originally Posted by No Robots
Robert M. Grant wrote a paper that covers the question of manuscripts. This would presumably also be included in his translation of Theophilus.
Thanks!
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Old 02-17-2006, 08:49 AM   #103
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Actually, Jake, "myths", at least when Loren and I were hashing out the definitions a while back, could contain an actual event behind it. Myths, at least how I'm working with them (and there's no one single standard for these definitions) are stories unique to a certain culture which reflect the beliefs, thoughts, customs, and practices of that culture.

Then again, it's a very fuzzy boundary between myth and legend (and fairy tale, etc...). Loren Rossen and I went a round over this somewhere, but I cannot find it at the moment.

For the Jesus story, I think it falls better into legend myself, regardless of whether there is truth in it or not.
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Old 02-17-2006, 08:53 AM   #104
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Originally Posted by Ben C Smith
Jesus running afoul (or already having run afoul) of the authorities, Jesus having somebody with whom to sup and give his parting thoughts to (the point in debate, of course), Jesus having some plan in mind that he knew would lead to his death.
The first and the third I think can be safely inferred from other parts of Paul's letters but the same cannot be said of the second. Guess which one I don't accept absent additional evidence?

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Yes. If I used examples of visions whose events we could not locate for certain on the map of history you could argue that they were, in fact, not real events.
Strike two on predicting my response. I would not argue that they were not real events but that we simply don't know if they were. I would also consider them truly analogous to what we have with Paul. I would be interested in whether you would obtain similar inferences from them.

Quote:
Paul already knew of a supper on the night before Jesus died.
Does he? Or is he simply assuming (unconsciously given a "genuine" vision) one based on a connection between Jesus' sacrifice and the Passover Lamb/Yom Kippur Goat? Either or both would easily lead to such an assumption, wouldn't they?

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If Jesus were speaking the words of institution to Paul in the vision, we might expect the second person singular; if he were speaking neither to somebody within the event nor to Paul, we might expect Paul to explain himself a little better.
I've already suggested that Jesus was not just speaking to Paul but to his entire community and the entire Pauline corpus could benefit from more clarity on the part of the author so it seems a bit arbitrary to make anything of his ambiguity here.

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It looks like Paul is trying to describe a real event in which Jesus really spoke in the second person plural over supper. That is where I would start unless something else told me differently.
I think I'm with you right up to the point where you assume there were people in the vision with Jesus. Paul doesn't tell us this and nowhere in his letters suggests that the living Jesus had companions/followers.

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The date of the vision relative to the event it describes is irrelevant for what the visionary thinks happened during that event and what he thinks happened only in the vision.
It requires a temporal juggling act and that was what I was explaining.

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My eucharistic experiment may be in trouble somewhat because it looks like Paul already knew about a last supper; to get from what we have in the Didache to what we have in Paul and the gospels requires that step plus the words of instution. So it appears that Paul could not have introduced both of those changes. Crossan has a life tradition and a death tradition taking off in different directions, with Paul having initiated neither; I may find myself going back to that scenario, though it is still possible that he is the one who introduced the words of institution.
If Paul's "last supper" was derived from the Passover and/or Yom Kippur meals, would that help?

I'm still not clear on the difference between your apostolic meal tradition and the vision-based one Paul taught. Are imagining the meal tradition taught by the apostles to be something akin to what we have in the Didache and the symbology provided by Jesus in Paul's vision is original to Paul?

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The notion that this was a vision is bugging me, too, not because of anything in this thread...
Patience, young Jedi.
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Old 02-17-2006, 08:55 AM   #105
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Julian
1 Cor. 15:5 (and possibly 1 Cor. 15:7 but there is probably a distinction made between disciples and apostles.)

Julian
Ok, gotcha. If 11 and 15 were interpolations, we still don't know that the interpolator knew of disciples from Mark, because he doesn't name them as disciples of Jesus on earth. Given their clear presence in Mark's account during the Last supper, their absence in 11 argues IMO against either 1. an interpolator being aware of them in the tradition or 2. an interpolator both being aware of them and wanting to acknowledge them. Both seem fairly unlikely, which means such an interpolation would most likely have occurred between Paul's writing and the knowledge of Mark's tradition. Seems like a pretty small window.

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Old 02-17-2006, 09:11 AM   #106
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Actually, Jake, "myths", at least when Loren and I were hashing out the definitions a while back, could contain an actual event behind it. Myths, at least how I'm working with them (and there's no one single standard for these definitions) are stories unique to a certain culture which reflect the beliefs, thoughts, customs, and practices of that culture.

Then again, it's a very fuzzy boundary between myth and legend (and fairy tale, etc...). Loren Rossen and I went a round over this somewhere, but I cannot find it at the moment.

For the Jesus story, I think it falls better into legend myself, regardless of whether there is truth in it or not.
At long last. Thank you for the open minded attitude. The openness to some historicity behind the NT accounts doesn't signify a subscription to any supernatural beliefs, and is a brave stance IMO.
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Old 02-17-2006, 09:35 AM   #107
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
Strike two on predicting my response.
I said could, not would. But I think you would indeed plead for agnosticism in such a circumstance.

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I would not argue that they were not real events but that we simply don't know if they were.
Even if all we had of ancient Christianity was the Pauline collection, I would posit Pauline knowledge of a last supper of some kind based on our passage. Guess you and I are destined to disagree on that one.

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I would also consider them truly analogous to what we have with Paul. I would be interested in whether you would obtain similar inferences from them.
I think I would, depending on the language used.

Let me take one last run at the problem from a different perspective....

Some of it may come down to the matter of articles. Consider the following statement:
The statue Cristo Redentor stands atop a mountain called Corcovado.
In this statement knowledge of the statue seems to be presumed as information already known; the new information that I am really conveying is the location of that statue atop a mountain named Corcovado. Now let us reverse the conditions:
Atop the mountain Corcovado stands a statue, Cristo Redentor.
Now it looks like I am presuming the mountain in order to talk about a statue, as if I have already described the mountain itself and am now going into further detail for somebody unfamiliar with Rio.

I know we do not always press the articles in this way, often for stylistic reasons, but it gives us something to work with.

In our passage Paul says that it was on the night when Jesus was delivered up that Jesus took bread (no article, therefore indefinite, since Greek has no indefinite article), as if he is referring to a known night in order to share the new information about the bread. (This scenario is complicated by the fact that we know Paul has already shared this with the Corinthians, but since he is repeating what he shared the first time, the incidentals and the emphases still line up, I think; hope that is clear.)

Likewise, the supper looks like old information: In the same way, after the supping....

Just as when the little girl tells her mother that daddy told her what happened on the boat, and it turns out that the boat was indeed old information, so when Paul tells the Corinthians what happened on the night of the delivering up, during and after the supping, I think those elements are the old information in the passage. They are the assumed reference points.

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I'm still not clear on the difference between your apostolic meal tradition and the vision-based one Paul taught. Are imagining the meal tradition taught by the apostles to be something akin to what we have in the Didache and the symbology provided by Jesus in Paul's vision is original to Paul?
Yes, something like that. The Didache meal has no explicit connection to the death of Jesus. I was suggesting that Paul turned a meal without such connections into a meal with such connections based on a personal revelation.

Ben.
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Old 02-17-2006, 09:50 AM   #108
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Originally Posted by TedM
Ok, gotcha. If 11 and 15 were interpolations, we still don't know that the interpolator knew of disciples from Mark, because he doesn't name them as disciples of Jesus on earth.
Why would he need to if the gospels were generally available?
Quote:
Given their clear presence in Mark's account during the Last supper, their absence in 11 argues IMO against either 1. an interpolator being aware of them in the tradition or 2. an interpolator both being aware of them and wanting to acknowledge them.
Their presence is implied, who else is Jesus talking to? Again, if the gospels were generally available why would he need a ton of detail?
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Both seem fairly unlikely, which means such an interpolation would most likely have occurred between Paul's writing and the knowledge of Mark's tradition. Seems like a pretty small window.
I disagree, however, how much time does a forger need to jot down a few lines? A few hours? A few days? Certainly not years.

In case you are not familiar with this: http://www.depts.drew.edu/jhc/rp1cor15.html

Julian
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Old 02-17-2006, 10:02 AM   #109
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Actually, Jake, "myths", at least when Loren and I were hashing out the definitions a while back, could contain an actual event behind it. Myths, at least how I'm working with them (and there's no one single standard for these definitions) are stories unique to a certain culture which reflect the beliefs, thoughts, customs, and practices of that culture.

Then again, it's a very fuzzy boundary between myth and legend (and fairy tale, etc...). Loren Rossen and I went a round over this somewhere, but I cannot find it at the moment.

For the Jesus story, I think it falls better into legend myself, regardless of whether there is truth in it or not.
Hi Chris,

Good point.
We should consider the term "allegory" also when discussing the gospel story, especially GMark.

Jake Jones
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Old 02-17-2006, 10:29 AM   #110
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Quote:
Originally Posted by TedM
If 11 and 15 were interpolations, we still don't know that the interpolator knew of disciples from Mark, because he doesn't name them as disciples of Jesus on earth. Given their clear presence in Mark's account during the Last supper, their absence in 11 argues IMO against either 1. an interpolator being aware of them in the tradition or 2. an interpolator both being aware of them and wanting to acknowledge them.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Julian
Their presence is implied, who else is Jesus talking to?
Funny how three verses can yield such diverse interpretations.

For Amaleq, the presence of companions is not at all implied in 1 Corinthians 11.23-25, and the passage is most likely genuine.

For Julian, the presence of companions is indeed implied in 1 Corinthians 11.23-25, and the passage is most likely an interpolation.

For me, the presence of companions is indeed implied in 1 Corinthians 11.23-25, and the passage is most likely genuine.

Where does your position fall in this fray, Ted?

Ben.
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