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Old 06-19-2008, 11:43 AM   #71
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After all, all you people who think you have read the Lord of the Rings can chop that up now; the first edition by itself is different to subsequent ones (eyewitness experience).
I prefer Poul Anderson to Tolkien myself, and he provides another good modern example of authorial responsibility for textual variants.

Anderson first published The Broken Sword in 1954, but he extensively revised it for the 1971 edition. An assessment of the revisions is available online.

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Old 06-19-2008, 12:36 PM   #72
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Just thinking laterally here, do we have a list of books where we *do* know with 100% certainty what the originals (what they?) said? After all, all you people who think you have read the Lord of the Rings can chop that up now; the first edition by itself is different to subsequent ones (eyewitness experience).

So I wonder whether a demand is being made of ancient texts that few texts in the history of the world would pass?

Not committed to this one -- just floating it and seeing if anyone can see the point I'm thinking of.
Spot on, Roger. The expectations here are unrealistic, but that just comes with the ignorance of the field abroad.
I appreciate your kind words.

I think much of the feeling about the likely unreliability of ancient sources is perfectly sincere, albeit based on inadequate information. But then only manuscript groupies like me are going to be interested in this sort of minutiae anyway, so we can't very well complain when people just fall into a natural error.

It is certainly the case that transmission of information has problems; today, yesterday, and still more in the case of a vanished society which we can only know by what little has survived. But to discard that little...? This we must not do, I think.

We live in a society where the media agenda has for a long time suggested that whatever is old is likely to be wrong, and whatever is new and the latest is likely to be the best; where classical learning is fading. Few today will study Latin at school. The generation that grew up with the classics is gone. For that generation, the idea that books could not be transmitted, that Cicero was merely a dim image at the far end of a grimy medieval telescope, was absurd, because they knew him from their own reading.

This was not necessarily positive, of course. In Kingsley Amis' Lucky Jim the headmaster 'is seen "taking, or rather hauling, the Junior Sixth through not nearly enough of In Marcum Antonium II," generating this address to Cicero's shade: "I'll patres conscripti you. I'll give you ut ita dicam. And what makes you so proud of esse videatur, eh? Shakespeare had your number all right." For a man so long and thoroughly dead it was remarkable how much boredom, and also how precise an image of nasty silliness, Cicero could generate. "Antony was worth twenty of you, you bastard,"' grumbled one of the students.

It would be idle for me to complain that a generation that had no opportunity to suffer in this manner does not take the classical world as a given. But that is a loss, to all of us so deprived.

Let us treasure the classical heritage. Not to repeat its follies and its vices. Every generation can manage that for itself. But to love it is a liberal education. To take a historical example of what to do, and what not to; if we must attempt to throw down the Austrian emperor, as they attempted to do in the 1850's, let us do so with the cleanly means of gunpowder and steel. Let us even endure the Hapsburgs, rather than poison the well of learning with captious and invented doubts as to whether we really can know much of Constantine's policies and person.

IMHO, of course.

All the best,

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Old 06-19-2008, 12:58 PM   #73
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Just thinking laterally here, do we have a list of books where we *do* know with 100% certainty what the originals (what they?) said? After all, all you people who think you have read the Lord of the Rings can chop that up now; the first edition by itself is different to subsequent ones (eyewitness experience).

We know that the process of publishing printed books tends to introduce changes all by itself. Typos anyone? Furthermore, what gets printed and what the author originally wrote are not always the same.

Now if this is the case today, how much more in the past.

So I wonder whether a demand is being made of ancient texts that few texts in the history of the world would pass?

Not committed to this one -- just floating it and seeing if anyone can see the point I'm thinking of.
With respect, you're missing the only essential point.

It doesn't matter if other ancient texts are altered. I love Philosophy and I don't give two hoots if the Plato I'm reading is the same one as Plato wrote in ancient Greece. I enjoy the Plato we have and it stands up on its own two feet regardless of what was written years ago.

For Christians, even alterations in a word or two of the ancient texts could be crucially important for their beliefs.
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Old 06-19-2008, 01:15 PM   #74
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With respect, you're missing the only essential point.

It doesn't matter if other ancient texts are altered. I love Philosophy and I don't give two hoots if the Plato I'm reading is the same one as Plato wrote in ancient Greece. I enjoy the Plato we have and it stands up on its own two feet regardless of what was written years ago.

For Christians, even alterations in a word or two of the ancient texts could be crucially important for their beliefs.
Why does that matter? You keep bringing this up like it means something. It doesn't.
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Old 06-19-2008, 01:21 PM   #75
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It DOES mean something.

The 'defence' being offered to 'Christian texts might be corrupt for all we know' is 'so might other ancient literature, you wouldn't want to throw out assuming that was essentially well transmitted, would you?'.

But the situations aren't on all fours with one another.

It really doesn't matter if Plato, Cicero (yes, even his historical writings) etc have not come down to us exactly.

Depending on the alterations, it does matter to the Christian believer if the NT texts have been corrupted.
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Old 06-19-2008, 01:32 PM   #76
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It DOES mean something.

The 'defence' being offered to 'Christian texts might be corrupt for all we know' is 'so might other ancient literature, you wouldn't want to throw out assuming that was essentially well transmitted, would you?'.

But the situations aren't on all fours with one another.

It really doesn't matter if Plato, Cicero (yes, even his historical writings) etc have not come down to us exactly.

Depending on the alterations, it does matter to the Christian believer if the NT texts have been corrupted.
You keep saying "Christian believer" like they ruled the world. Who cares? Why are you ignoring Roman paganists, Greek paganists, Hindus, Buddhists, Muslims? How are you able to separate Christian texts from Cicero or Plato? How is any of it relevant to what we can know about ancient texts? I see a lot of assertion, but nothing of substance to back up any of your claims, and still nothing tying it in to topic.
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Old 06-19-2008, 01:35 PM   #77
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Spot on, Roger. The expectations here are unrealistic, but that just comes with the ignorance of the field abroad. You can easily tell who has done their homework, and who is just spiteful.
What expectations? What are you talking about?
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Old 06-19-2008, 01:40 PM   #78
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"If we all know that are some changes, why then calling obscurantists those who claim we can't know for sure what the original says? It is a corollary!"

Not knowing 100% is far different than saying the text is unknowable. We have a matter of practicality. The message survives, and we're 99% sure of that. There's always a 1% chance, but even in the hard sciences that 1% won't go away.
Why 1%? Where does that number come from? Why not 5%? Why not 10%? What methodology do you use to arrive at that number, 1%?

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Not knowing 100% is far different than saying the text is unknowable.
Isn't it what I keep saying? :huh: Ehrman position is the former, not the latter.
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Old 06-19-2008, 01:54 PM   #79
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This from wikipedia:
.................................................. ...........
Until recently, it was not thought that any Greek Church Father had taken note of the passage before the 12th Century; but in 1941 a large collection of the writings of Didymus the Blind (c313- 398) was discovered in Egypt, including a reference to the pericope adulterae as being found in "several gospels"; and it is now considered established that this passage was present in its canonical place in a minority of Greek manuscripts known in Alexandria from the 4th Century onwards. In support of this it is noted that the 4th century Codex Vaticanus, which was written in Egypt, marks the end of John chapter 7 with an "umlaut", indicating that an alternative reading was known at this point.

.................................................. ..
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pericope_Adulter%C3%A6


It would be nice if anyone in the know to comment on the accuaracy of this.
The Problem with the Didymus citation is that although there is obviously a close relation to the familiar story there are also substantial differences. Also Didymus does not make clear which Gospel contained the story. (It was not necessarily a canonical one.) IMO it is dubious to use Didymus as evidence for the presence of the familiar story in canonical John.

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Didymus: We find therefore in certain Gospels. A woman it says was condemned by the Jews for a sin and was being sent to be stoned in the place where that was customary to happen. The saviour it says when he saw her and observed that they were ready to stone her said to those who were about to cast stones 'He who has not sinned let him take a stone and cast it ' If anyone is conscious in himself not to have sinned let him take up a stone and smite her. And no one dared. Since they knew in themselves and perceived that they themselves were guilty in some things they did not dare to strike her.

(Although the passage is largely ignored by Greek writers until c 1100 CE, it was certainly found in most Greek manuscripts of John written after say 700 CE. The absence of reference to the passage in late 1st millenium Greek commentators probably has more to do with the silence of the earlier commentators they were using as sources, than its absence in their own texts.)

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Old 06-19-2008, 01:59 PM   #80
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and the title of his book might seem deliberately provocative
Actually, if I recall correctly, the titles of his books were selected by the publishers. Well, at least for Misquoting Jesus.
I think The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture must be Ehrman's own coice of title. At least the text contains an interesting discussion of the popular meaning of corruption versus the technical meaning that implicitly refers back to the title.

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