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Old 10-22-2005, 07:57 AM   #31
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Ted, can we rule out M Felix and other Second Century writers as evidence towards a First Century belief in an ahistorical Jesus? Were their beliefs stand-alone, or was there influence from the First Century?

The reason I'm asking this is that if there is no connection between the Second Century mythicists and the First Century ones, then the Second Century mythicists can be ruled out as evidence towards a Christianity that started with a mythical Christ. (In the same way that I'm sure you'd agree that Second Century historicists shouldn't necessarily be used as evidence of First Century beliefs).
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Old 10-22-2005, 08:02 AM   #32
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Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman

Quote:
Originally Posted by Roger Pearse
As I understand it, it is the consensus of scholarship that MF copied Tertullian.
This is incorrect. There is no scholarly consensus on this matter.
My understanding is based on the reviews in the Chronica Tertullianea et Cyprianea, plus a Czech article on Tertullian which explicitly states this, plus a range of other articles. If anyone actually knows -- rather than wishes -- different, I'd be interested to hear it.

I'm not sure on what you base your comment -- would you explain how you know what the consensus of scholarship is? Do you follow the scholarly literature on the topic, which seems to be mainly in German? If so, I'd appreciate your comments on Axelson and Becker.

Who precisely in the last 15 years has stated that there is no consensus? Even Gilles Quispel -- a defender of the priority of MF -- acknowledges the philology points only one way, or so I gather.

All the best,

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Old 10-22-2005, 08:04 AM   #33
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Originally Posted by GakuseiDon
Ted, can we rule out M Felix and other Second Century writers as evidence towards a First Century belief in an ahistorical Jesus?
Rule out? Your meaning is unclear.
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Originally Posted by GakuseiDon
Were their beliefs stand-alone, or was there influence from the First Century?
Asked and answered. I answered this yesterday.

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Originally Posted by GakuseiDon
The reason I'm asking this is that if there is no connection between the Second Century mythicists and the First Century ones,...
Meaning they developed their beliefs from a vaccum? Does that sound possible to you?
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Originally Posted by GakuseiDon
... then the Second Century mythicists can be ruled out as evidence towards a Christianity that started with a mythical Christ. (In the same way that I'm sure you'd agree that Second Century historicists shouldn't necessarily be used as evidence of First Century beliefs).
Ruled out, to me means, "eliminated and no longer regarded as part of a set". In your passage, its unclear what you mean.
Who are 1st cent mythicists? Who are 2nd cent mythicists? Why is this coming up when we are discussing MF?
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Old 10-22-2005, 08:14 AM   #34
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"the objects of their worship include a man who suffered death as a criminal, as well as the wretched wood of his cross"
So you are saying this [crucified] man is not Christ: who is it then?
Given the late date (160 CE or later) and the fact that M Felix refers to himself as a Christian, this can only be a reference to Christ.

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Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
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Originally Posted by GDon
The reason I'm asking this is that if there is no connection between the Second Century mythicists and the First Century ones,...
Meaning they developed their beliefs from a vaccum? Does that sound possible to you?
It sounds possible to me. What is the evidence to the contrary? Did earlier Christ mythers influence M Felix, in your opinion? If so, what is the evidence?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
Quote:
Originally Posted by GDon
... then the Second Century mythicists can be ruled out as evidence towards a Christianity that started with a mythical Christ. (In the same way that I'm sure you'd agree that Second Century historicists shouldn't necessarily be used as evidence of First Century beliefs).
Ruled out, to me means, "eliminated and no longer regarded as part of a set". In your passage, its unclear what you mean.
Who are 1st cent mythicists? Who are 2nd cent mythicists? Why is this coming up when we are discussing MF?
It is part of the analysis of MJ writings that I referred to earlier. I'll leave you to sort out who the first century mythicists were who may have influenced M Felix. If there were none, then we can rule out M Felix as casting any light on Christian origins. (I believe Carrier made the same point when discussing the Big Bang concept of Christianity with you).
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Old 10-22-2005, 08:17 AM   #35
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Roger Pearse
My understanding is based on the reviews in the Chronica Tertullianea et Cyprianea, plus a Czech article on Tertullian which explicitly states this, plus a range of other articles. If anyone actually knows -- rather than wishes -- different, I'd be interested to hear it.
So, let me understand this: you have read the arguments and have the sources but will not share them with us?
What happened to the scholars who did not share that alleged consensus? They all got persuaded?
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Originally Posted by Roger Pearse
I'm not sure on what you base your comment -- would you explain how you know what the consensus of scholarship is?
Michael E. Hardwick's article at your website is a good starting point. I dont see consensus there.

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Originally Posted by Roger Pearse
Do you follow the scholarly literature on the topic, which seems to be mainly in German? If so, I'd appreciate your comments on Axelson and Becker.
Start a new thread for that. What is relevant now is whether or not you will provide an outline of the alleged Philological arguments that prove that MF copied Tertullian, so that we can evaluate them.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Roger Pearse
Who precisely in the last 15 years has stated that there is no consensus? Even Gilles Quispel -- a defender of the priority of MF -- acknowledges the philology points only one way, or so I gather.
All the best,
Roger Pearse
You gather? What does that mean? Could you please cite the relevant passages?

It is fine if you choose to claim a priveledged access to obscure sources in different languages. But without sharing the arguments, we have no way of scrutinizing your basis for declaring that a 'philological' argument settled the matter - a matter which you OTOH want to win on numbers. It doesnt mean that you could be bluffing: it simply means that we have no reason to believe what you are saying.

I would appreciate it if you just outlined the argument. A matter that becomes clear ceases to concern us.
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Old 10-22-2005, 08:21 AM   #36
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The thing is, M Felix appears to be doing exactly the same thing, as Andrew also mentions in his OP. You could replace the name of "Tertullian" with "M Felix" in Doherty's comment, and it would capture what I'm claiming for M Felix.
You write that "M Felix appears to be doing exactly the same thing". That may be so, but to argue that "MF is in fact doing exactly the same thing" would demand that we account for the context and what the authors write elsewhere.
The fact of the matter is that the words in question were not written in isolation so we have to accord due consideration to the context.
What, then, is the context that we need to consider?
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Old 10-22-2005, 08:23 AM   #37
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The same:

he who explains their ceremonies by reference to a man punished by extreme suffering for his wickedness, and to the deadly wood of the cross, appropriates fitting altars for reprobate and wicked men, that they may worship what they deserve
And this wicked man that is referenced in ceremonies who suffered on the deadly wood of the cross is not Christ? Who is it?
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Old 10-22-2005, 08:25 AM   #38
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What, then, is the context that we need to consider?
Everything else written in the text(s). Every source we have that exposes MF's beliefs and Tertullian's beliefs.
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Old 10-22-2005, 08:31 AM   #39
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
And this wicked man that is referenced in ceremonies who suffered on the deadly wood of the cross is not Christ? Who is it?
Given the late date (160 CE or later) and the fact that M Felix refers to himself as a Christian, this can only be a reference to Christ.
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Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
Everything else written in the text(s). Every source we have that exposes MF's beliefs and Tertullian's beliefs.
OK.
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Old 10-22-2005, 08:34 AM   #40
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It sounds possible to me.
It will be interesting to see your argument.
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What is the evidence to the contrary? Did earlier Christ mythers influence M Felix, in your opinion?
It is likely that MF was just a pagan who converted. And he converted to a Christianity devoid of a HJ. Probably a logos-centric Christianity. Or a theocentric one which had the logos playing a minor role, or one where Christ was an intermediary saviour figure.
In any event, his brand of Christianity detested the idea of worshipping a chap who suffered at the cross. That is primary to the MJ hypothesis because he is a towering example of a Christian who rejected the idea that a man died and through that conferred salvation to those that remained.

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Originally Posted by GakuseiDon
It is part of the analysis of MJ writings that I referred to earlier. I'll leave you to sort out who the first century mythicists were who may have influenced M Felix. If there were none, then we can rule out M Felix as casting any light on Christian origins. (I believe Carrier made the same point when discussing the Big Bang concept of Christianity with you).
Yes, Carrier made that argument. But his argument entailed declaring Didache, Shepherd of Hermas, Ascension of Isaiah, Epistle to Diognetus, MF etc as non-Christian documents.

You want to adopt his argument? go ahead. But you have a lot of revision to do.
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