spin

Let's get this straight. You deliberately leave out the key word "linguistic" when I say "Semitic linguistic substratum". That is continued misrepresentation. That's indicative of the fact that you're merely apologizing for your erroneous Aramaic claims.

I have provided a context in which the philology makes sense, ie a Greek speaking Latin audience.

Presumably you're hard of reading. I specified a Semitic cultural background.

You showed no such thing. You are fantasizing.

Mark features Latin terms transliterated into Greek. It also features Latin idioms translated into Greek. These are not features of LXX Greek. However, LXX Greek was being translated from the 2nd c. BCE onwards in various parts of the diaspora so one must find similarities with other texts of the period using Greek.

You are unable to judge, judge.


spin

judge

Not at all sometimes you use it, and at othertimes you merely say substratum.If you wish to differentiate then do so by using the word linguistic.

judge

There are loan word sure...but so what. There are Aramaic words all through the greek NT. It works both ways.

There are semitic idioms all through the NT.

judge

You should have checked the Aramaic first
Here it is...Mark 5 in Aramaic

All you show is that the greek translator made (yet another ) mistake.....

Do you get it? The mistake is not in the Aramaic (yet again)
The mistake is one made by a person translating from Aramaic into greek!

There is more...but...I have better things to do. It is such a beautiful May day here. I'm going swimming.

All the best

spin

In blissful ignorance judge writes:
You should stop, empty all this preconception out of your brain for a moment, and tell me where the "I say to you" comes from. Stop. Do think about where it comes from. It certainly wasn't from translating Aramaic, because a source for these words is not there in the Aramaic. It's not a mistake that can be made from translating the source. So, how did it get there?

You should learn from mistakes. They are made for some reason. In this case the writer didn't know Aramaic and depended on an oral tradition for an explanation -- unless of course you can think of a more logical reason.

That's the point. But you didn't get it. The "mistake" is not in Aramaic, obviously because it's not derived from Aramaic. A translator wouldn't normally translate something that is patently not there. It's only someone who didn't know the Aramaic who would have done this.

Hopefully by now it might be dawning on you that such a facile excuse doesn't work. There is no reason to insert something so unattached as "I say to you" to the text being translated.

Someone translating from Greek to Aramaic would know what "talitha koumi" meant and wouldn't need any explanation. The translation process from Greek to Aramaic makes sense, but from Aramaic to Greek doesn't.

Thanks.


spin

Koyaanisqatsi

Which seems odd, considering that the Jesus myth is supposedly a fulfillment of Jewish prophecy allegedly written, one would think, for the local "Jesus the Christ" Rabbis.

If it were actually the fulfillment of Jewish messiah prophecy, why wouldn't it have been written (and rewritten, as "the Jews" were so careful at doing) in the original Hebrew?

We have the Hebrew scolls religiously transcribed in Hebrew from allegedly thousands of years before Yeshua happened onto the Jewish scene, so why don't we have equally fanatically preserved Hebrew scrolls of the time when Jehovah incarnated into flesh and walked upon the Earth among His chosen people? One might wonder.

And while we're at it, can anyone point to any "OT" prophet who "saw" that Jehovah (aka, God) would incarnate into flesh in order to be sacrificed to Himself for mankind's sins?

:huh:

Seems fairly integral to the whole NT passion narrative, don't you think, to be overlooked by Jehovah's "inspired" prophecy? Or does that fall under "the lord moves in mysterious ways" and if so, how could Mark or any NT author claim anything the OT prophecied as being proof of Jesus' divinity?

"What was your vision, Isaiah?"
"Well if you're asking whether or not it involved God trifurcating into human form and killing himself as a necessary sacrifice to himself to save us all from himself, I'm afraid I was sleeping when that nugget of inspired prophecy was being imparted, so ask Daniel."

judge

You still don't get it. The greek contains the error (as usual), an error in translation in the greek (as usual). The Aramaic does not contain the error.

The translator (from Aramaic to Greek) was not proficient enough in Aramaic, and makes an error.

So, it is clearly an error that could be made.


Yes I just gave it.

Again and again we find perfect grammar and no translation errors in the peshitta. Time and time again we find errors have crept into the greek versions through translation error.

You just found another one.

judge

Just nonsense. What if the translator was not 100% proficient in Aramaic?
Did you consider this?
And who is 100% proficient? Of course errors will creep in, and the trajectory will be from the text without errors to the text where the errors are.
The errors occur in translation. It is in translation that the opportunity arises for an error to be made.
This is fairly simple point.

spin

Yup. You're still not thinking. Look at the rest of the text and find something comparable.

Beats me.

This has no added content.

You have said a lot and avoided the whole issue. Explain how we end up with the extra words here that don't come from the Aramaic phrase "talitha kumi".

Mark has these magic Aramaic phrases which have no value in themselves, but sound like they are a strange language. "talitha kumi" is a good example, "lamb, arise". How did it get into the Greek if the translator was working from an Aramaic source? How did such an irrelevant phrase get kept in? Yet again obviously, it wasn't translated from Aramaic. The Aramaic phrase was incorporated into Greek from oral tradition. There would be no reason whatsoever to keep this silly phrase when translating from Aramaic.

So, the further we go the more problems there are for your Aramaic priority. Keep it up. And you can't explain them.



spin

judge

Spin I know you too well. When desperate you resort to this. But really it is just information about yourself. Information irrelevant to this discussion.

all the best.