FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Yesterday at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 09-16-2004, 02:53 PM   #31
Contributor
 
Join Date: Jun 2000
Location: Los Angeles area
Posts: 40,549
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by PhilosopherJay
. . .

That said, the more interesting discussion for me is why people generally believe John to be the fourth gospel. It is the first gospel that we know to have had a commentary written about it and the first gospel of which we have physical evidence.

Mark has to backtrack on a failed postwar prophesy of Jesus' return, saying that nobody can know the time of his return. The postwar return phophesy must itself have been postwar. This suggests to me that Mark is 40 or 50 years past the Roman-Judean War, John has no such reference and seems to reflect a prewar world. Take for example this line:

19:15 But they shouted, Take him away! Take him away! Crucify him! Shall I crucify your king? Pilate asked. We have no king but Caesar, the chief priests answered.

Such a line could make no sense in the post-war world, where everybody knew that the Jewish Priests had led a bloody rebellion against Caesar costing millions of lives. Why emphasize Jewish loyalty to Rome?

For this as well as other reasons, I would date John to circa 60 C.E.. Mark circa 120 or later. I would like to know the significant objections to this dating.

Warmly,

Jay Raskin
I don't see the "No King but Caesar" remark as dispositive. I think we may assume that the author of this gospel could put appropriate language in the mouths of his characters for that time. Or it could have been meant ironically.

But do we need to assume that the fourth gospel we have today was written at one time, or that Mark was written at one time?

That said, Peter Kirby's site says (I'll save him the trouble of quoting it):

Quote:
. . .

Kysar states that most scholars today see the historical setting of the Gospel of John in the expulsion of the community from the synagogue (op. cit., p. 918). The word aposynagogos is found three times in the gospel (9:22, 12:42, 16:2). The high claims made for Jesus and the response to them (5:18), the polemic against "the Jews" (9:18, 10:31, 18:12, 19:12), and the assertion of a superiority of Christian revelation to the Hebrew (1:18, 6:49-50, 8:58) show that "the Johannine community stood in opposition to the synagogue from which it had been expelled." (p. 918)

Kysar states concerning the dating of the Gospel of John: "Those who relate the expulsion to a formal effort on the part of Judaism to purge itself of Christian believers link the composition of the gospel with a date soon after the Council of Jamnia, which is supposed to have promulgated such an action. Hence, these scholars would date John after 90. Those inclined to see the expulsion more in terms of an informal action on the part of a local synagogue are free to propose an earlier date." (p. 919)

Kysar also observes on the dating of the Gospel of John: "The earliest date for the gospel hinges upon the question of whether or not it presupposes the destruction of the Temple in 70 C.E. Most agree that it does, although there have been persistent attempts to argue otherwise. The reasons for positing a post-70 date include the view of the Temple implicit in 2:13-22. Most would argue that the passage attempts to present Christ as the replacement of the Temple that has been destroyed." (p. 918) Note also the irony of 11:48: "If we let him go on like this, everyone will believe in him, and then the Romans will come and take away both our place [i.e. temple] and our nation." Finally, there is no mention of the Sadducees, which reflects post-70 Judaism. The retort that there is also no mention of scribes misses the mark, as the Pharisees represented the scribal tradition, and the Pharisees are mentioned.
However, it appears that a Gospel of John was used by the gnostics.

Quote:
Helms argues: "So the gospel attributed, late in the second century, to John at Ephesus was viewed as an anti-gnostic, anti-Cerinthean work. But, very strangely, Epiphanius, in his book against the heretics, argues against those who actually believed that it was Cerinthus himself who wrote the Gospel of John! (Adv. Haer. 51.3.6). How could it be that the Fourth Gospel was at one time in its history regarded as the product of an Egyptian-trained gnostic, and at another time in its history regarded as composed for the very purpose of attacking this same gnostic? I think the answer is plausible that in an early, now-lost version, the Fourth Gospel could well have been read in a Cerinthean, gnostic fashion, but that at Ephesus a revision of it was produced (we now call it the Gospel of John) that put this gospel back into the Christian mainstream."
And how does this relate to the idea on another thread, that the Gospel of John was originally written about John the Baptist? John without Jesus
Toto is offline  
Old 09-16-2004, 03:45 PM   #32
Contributor
 
Join Date: Jan 2001
Location: Barrayar
Posts: 11,866
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by PhilosopherJay
Hi Peter,
For this as well as other reasons, I would date John to circa 60 C.E.. Mark circa 120 or later. I would like to know the significant objections to this dating.
Warmly,
Jay Raskin
Our current form of John depends on Mark. The passage you've identified is part of a larger structure in Mark; namely, the author's use of Daniel to overwrite Jesus' Crucifixion. Much of Mark has survive in John's passion. As Crossan points out, John's passion contains other literary features brought in from Mark (intercalations).

The clincher is the Temple Ruckus, which occurs in both gospels. In Mark at every level the Temple Ruckus is a literary invention. At the highest level it is dictated by Mark's use of the Elijah-Elisha cycle. In Mark's use of the EEC, Jesus cleanses the Temple at the same time Jehu wipes out the priests of Ba'al. At the detail level the entire event is composed of either Markan redaction or quotes from the OT, two from Nehemiah and the famous "robbers" remark. It is impossible that John has, through literary invention, hit upon the exact same literary features that Mark has (he has added some as well). The Temple event is a fiction; its presence elsewhere is indicative of dependence.

Vorkosigan
Vorkosigan is offline  
Old 09-16-2004, 07:46 PM   #33
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2001
Location: the reliquary of Ockham's razor
Posts: 4,035
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by CX
Sorry. Poor phrasing on my part. Your version is much clearer. As far as I know there are no MSS fragments from the 1st century and perhaps as few as 3 from the 2nd century.
I should have considered the source! You have an excellent command of NT text criticism, and I need not have asked.

best,
Peter Kirby
Peter Kirby is online now   Edit/Delete Message
Old 09-16-2004, 08:30 PM   #34
CX
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Dec 2001
Location: Portlandish
Posts: 2,829
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Peter Kirby
I should have considered the source! You have an excellent command of NT text criticism, and I need not have asked.

best,
Peter Kirby
Wasted years, my friend, wasted years. While the other kids were playing baseball and hanging out at the neighborhood pool I was reading Bultmann and Brown. Possibly that's why I was kicked out of sunday school.

P.S. I consider it high praise coming from you and undeserved at that. If my work was as prolific as yours at your age I would be a world renowned scholar by now rather than an internet message board dilletante. I've talked to several people who were shocked to learn that you weren't at least 50.
CX is offline  
Old 09-17-2004, 06:03 AM   #35
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Aug 2004
Location: Orlando
Posts: 2,014
Default Quibbling About Who Depends On Whom

Hi Vorkosigan,

Quote:
Originally Posted by Vorkosigan
Our current form of John depends on Mark. The passage you've identified is part of a larger structure in Mark; namely, the author's use of Daniel to overwrite Jesus' Crucifixion. Much of Mark has survive in John's passion. As Crossan points out, John's passion contains other literary features brought in from Mark (intercalations).

The clincher is the Temple Ruckus, which occurs in both gospels. In Mark at every level the Temple Ruckus is a literary invention. At the highest level it is dictated by Mark's use of the Elijah-Elisha cycle. In Mark's use of the EEC, Jesus cleanses the Temple at the same time Jehu wipes out the priests of Ba'al. At the detail level the entire event is composed of either Markan redaction or quotes from the OT, two from Nehemiah and the famous "robbers" remark. It is impossible that John has, through literary invention, hit upon the exact same literary features that Mark has (he has added some as well). The Temple event is a fiction; its presence elsewhere is indicative of dependence.

Vorkosigan
Thanks for the response.

My counterargument would be that Mark is a pretty wierd dude if he thinks Jehu killing the priests of Ba'al is equivalent to chasing merchants from the Jerusalem temple. It sounds like someone is trying to make things fit into a pattern whether they do or not.


Mark
Quote:
11.15And they came to Jerusalem. And he entered the temple and began to drive out those who sold and those who bought in the temple, and he overturned the tables of the money-changers and the seats of those who sold pigeons; 11.16and he would not allow any one to carry anything through the temple. 11.17And he taught, and said to them, "Is it not written, 'My house shall be called a house of prayer for all the nations'? But you have made it a den of robbers." 11.18And the chief priests and the scribes heard it and sought a way to destroy him; for they feared him, because all the multitude was astonished at his teaching. 11.19And when evening came they went out of the city.
John
Quote:
2.14 In the temple he found those who were selling oxen and sheep and pigeons, and the money-changers at their business. 2.15 And making a whip of cords, he drove them all, with the sheep and oxen, out of the temple; and he poured out the coins of the money-changers and overturned their tables. 2.16 And he told those who sold the pigeons, "Take these things away; you shall not make my Father's house a house of trade." 2.17 His disciples remembered that it was written, "Zeal for thy house will consume me." 2.18 The Jews then said to him, "What sign have you to show us for doing this?" 2.19 Jesus answered them, "Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up." 2.20 The Jews then said, "It has taken forty-six years to build this temple, and will you raise it up in three days?" 2.21 But he spoke of the temple of his body. 2.22 When therefore he was raised from the dead, his disciples remembered that he had said this; and they believed the scripture and the word which Jesus had spoken.

My interpretation of the primary difference in the two passages is this:

John is telling us that Jesus was a Jewish fanatic who wanted to purify the Jewish Temple from foreign influences. His zeal for Judaism drove him insane to the point of beating people with a whip of cords.
Mark, horrified at the idea that John has portrayed Jesus as a rabid Jewish fanatic and madman, changes the passage to portray Jesus as an internationalist upset at the Jews for trying to make a profit off of the universal God. He modestly throws over a few tables to illustrate his lecture that God is for all people, not just the Jews. We can also imagine Mark thinking, "And Jesus whipping people. Heavens to Betsy, we can't have that." He ditches this important description also.

There is no need to interpret Jesus' remark in John about destroying the Temple as a reference to the actual destruction of the Temple in 70. It may be interpreted as a metaphorical destruction, (the merchants were destroying the soul of the Temple). The writer points out the dynamic and powerful nature of Christianity. The Christians established their spiritual religion based on the resurrection of Jesus in only three days, while the Jews took 46 years to establish their religion by building the Temple.

We may surmise that the rapidity with which Christianity grew was not an important issue later on, and therefore Mark gets rid of this and substitutes the concept that Jesus' teachings against the merchants was something the Jewish High Priests opposed. It made the people love him and the High Priests jealous of him. This is Mark continuing to revise Jesus from Jewish Zealot to popular folk hero.

John's version is First Century Christianity. Mark's version is Second Century Christianity.



Warmly,

Jay Raskin
PhilosopherJay is offline  
Old 09-17-2004, 06:30 AM   #36
Contributor
 
Join Date: Jan 2001
Location: Barrayar
Posts: 11,866
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by PhilosopherJay
Hi Vorkosigan,
Thanks for the response.

My counterargument would be that Mark is a pretty wierd dude if he thinks Jehu killing the priests of Ba'al is equivalent to chasing merchants from the Jerusalem temple. It sounds like someone is trying to make things fit into a pattern whether they do or not.
Jay, the first problem here is that you are using an incorrect translation. Jesus wasn't driving "merchandise" out of the Temple, he's preventing the sacred vessels from going out. Compare Mark's Temple scene:

15 And they come to Jerusalem, and Jesus having gone into the temple, began to cast forth those selling and buying in the temple, and the tables of the money-changers and the seats of those selling the doves, he overthrew,
16 and he did not suffer that any might bear a vessel through the temple,[YLT]

8 I was greatly displeased and threw all Tobiah's household goods out of the room. 9 I gave orders to purify the rooms, and then I put back into them the equipment of the house of God, with the grain offerings and the incense.
10 I also learned that the portions assigned [NIV]

(Tobiah is in violation of the edict that no Moabite or Ammonite shall ever be allowed in the Temple. Nehemiah is purifying the Temple).

Most translations incorrectly use "merchandise" for "vessels." Once you put in the correct word, the parallel between "furniture" and "tables" and of course, the presence of the "vessels" the sacred "equipment of the house of god" is clear. Someone at the NIV must have figured this one out, because they translated both passages so they don't resemble one another.

The Higher-Level structure is provided by Thomas Brodie on p93 of The Crucial Bridge: the Elijah-Elisha Narrative as an interpretive synthesis of Genesis-Kings and a literary model for the Gospels. The reason is that the foundation of the Jesus legend is the Elijah-Elisha cycle. At the climax of the two legend cycles, both E and J cleanse Temples, Elijah in the purging of the priests of Baal with fire, and Jesus of the moneychangers. Both are annointed (2 Kings 9), accession with cloaks on the ground (2 Kings 9), waiting before taking over (2 Kings 9:12-13, Mark 11:11), challenge the authorities (2 Kings 9:22-10:27), Mark 11:11 - 12:12), and money is given to the Temple (2 Kings 12:5-17, Mark 12:41-44). As Brodie puts it (p93), ..."the basic point is clear: Mark's long passion narrative, while using distinctive Christian sources, coincides significantly both in form and content with the long Temple-centered sequence at the end of the Elijah-Elisha narrative."

We discussed this thread in great detail.


Quote:
John is telling us that Jesus was a Jewish fanatic who wanted to purify the Jewish Temple from foreign influences. His zeal for Judaism drove him insane to the point of beating people with a whip of cords. Mark, horrified at the idea that John has portrayed Jesus as a rabid Jewish fanatic and madman, changes the passage to portray Jesus as an internationalist upset at the Jews for trying to make a profit off of the universal God. He modestly throws over a few tables to illustrate his lecture that God is for all people, not just the Jews. We can also imagine Mark thinking, "And Jesus whipping people. Heavens to Betsy, we can't have that." He ditches this important description also.
No, John has added the extra element. John's Temple Ruckus is even more fantastic than Mark's; both in any case is a literary fiction.....

Quote:
John's version is First Century Christianity. Mark's version is Second Century Christianity.
.....Unfortunately, as the scripture quotations and larger literary structures show, John depends on Mark. Whereas in John the Temple Ruckus has no particular location, in Mark it clearly relates to a whole sequence of Elijah-Elisha parallels that dominate his gospel. In John it simply makes no sense; in Mark it is integral to his retelling of the story. I am still ferreting them all out, but here is my most recent draft of the Mark 11 (the Temple Ruckus). I still have a lot to work through, though, so consider this a VERY early version.

Vorkosigan
Vorkosigan is offline  
Old 09-19-2004, 04:40 AM   #37
Regular Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2004
Location: Texas
Posts: 430
Default

If I may interject something regarding Johanine priority:

It seems to me that Marcion would have actually approved of most of gJohn, and, had he known of it, would have included at least parts of it in his canon (trying to be neutral here about just how original Marcion's canon was).

It could be that it coexisted or pre-existed, of course, without his knowledge.

It could also be that what little we know about Marcionism is incomplete and should actually include some of gJohn. Or that Marcion's proto-Luke was based on an early Johanine source (proto-John?).

I'd like to hear everyone's thoughts on any connection or lack thereof between Marcionism and gJohn. :notworthy
Casper is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 09:00 AM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.