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Old 03-18-2011, 07:20 PM   #231
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I used the phrase “tortured exegesis” in regard to spin’s analysis of 1 Cor. 15. It was fully justified. Here is his latest:

(DCH, I will be as concise as I can and hope that none of it is chaff. However, I will sometimes say the same thing in a couple of different ways, to ensure that I am understood.)

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Let's recap:
44 It is sown a physical body, it is raised a spiritual body. If there is a physical body, there is also a spiritual body. 45 Thus it is written, "The first man, Adam, became a living being"; the last Adam became a life-giving spirit. 46 But it is not the spiritual that is first, but the physical, and then the spiritual.
Looking at the implication of v.46, the physical is first, ie there is nothing before it. The spiritual is second, ie there is something before it, ie the physical body. This is a reflection of the process in 44a. Applying it to v.45, the first man became a living being (and there was nothing before that); the last Adam became a life-giving spirit (but there was something before that). This indicates that, before the last Adam had a spiritual body, he had another and the only option Paul supplies is that it was a physical body. As 44b indicates, you don't get one without there being the other, one after the other. So according to Paul's scheme of things in 1 Cor 15, christ was raised a spiritual body, but was sown a physical body.
No, no, no. This is egregiously wrong.

Verse 45 talks of two separate individuals. Adam and Christ. One is defined as physical. The other is defined as spiritual. The term “physical” is applied to Adam. The term “spiritual” is applied to Christ.

When in verse 46, Paul speaks of the spiritual not as coming first, but “the physical comes first, then the spiritual,” he is saying that Adam came first, then Christ came second. As I pointed out, the NEB’s “Observe…” makes it clear that it is referring back to verse 45, that the terms “physical” and “spiritual” therein refer respectively back to Adam and Christ. He is in no way saying that a physical Christ came first and then a spiritual Christ.

Besides, why would Paul appeal to the two figures Adam and Christ to illustrate a process that Christ himself underwent? If Christ was a human before he became a spirit, then those two states of Christ himself, the former being an historical one and verifiable, would have been sufficient to make his point about what happens at resurrection. (This, of course, is what I've kept saying all along.)

Verses 47-49 maintain the same separation between the two individuals, the two bodies, Adam and Christ, showing that verse 46 is also referring to the two individuals, not two states of Christ.

Why would Paul in v.46 be bothering to say that the physical came first and the spiritual second if he were referring to the two states of an allegedly incarnated Christ? Of course the physical would have come first, then the spiritual. And it would make nonsense of the first part of verse 46, “Observe that the spiritual does not come first…” Of course the spiritual does not come first. Who would maintain that, in the sense of Christ’s present spiritual state came before his incarnated physical state?

Nor can the “spiritual” in this verse refer to the pre-existent Christ, before his incarnation. It would be illogical for Paul to deny this, which he would be doing right in that verse.

So let’s go over what spin has said:

Quote:
The spiritual is second, ie there is something before it, ie the physical body.
It is not “something” that is before the spiritual, it is someone. Adam. Paul is giving a sequence of two different “men”, the physical man and the spiritual man. This sequence idea is found back in 15:20-3 and in Romans 5:12f, one entity followed by another entity, the archetypal sinner followed by the redeemer of those sinners. That’s basic Pauline theology. Where would ‘the physical Jesus followed by the spiritual Christ’ idea fit into such a pattern?

Quote:
This is a reflection of the process in 44a.
No, it is not. Verse 44a, as I constantly reiterate, is part of 34-44a which is speaking of the process of the death and rising of those who doubt the feasibility of resurrection. It does not include Christ, who had no such doubt. To include Christ simply because he was, you claim, a human being on earth who was resurrected, is to read an arbitrary implication of him into the passage and beg the question.

Quote:
Applying it to v.45, the first man became a living being (and there was nothing before that); the last Adam became a life-giving spirit (but there was something before that). This indicates that, before the last Adam had a spiritual body, he had another and the only option Paul supplies is that it was a physical body.
Spin is still clinging to the erroneous understanding of 45b, that Christ “became” something, from some previous state. If it were so, there would be no logical parallel between 45a and 45b.

Quote:
As 44b indicates, you don't get one without there being the other, one after the other.
Yes, for Paul’s purposes in arguing for resurrection, he needs both categories, the physical and the spiritual. But he offers those categories in terms of two separate entities, Adam and Christ. He doesn’t require that one of them was previously the other. If he did, then all he needed was Christ, who was both, in the proper sequence.

Verse 44b simply itemizes those two separate categories, the physical body and the spiritual body: “If there is such a thing as an animal body, there is also a spiritual body.” I may say, for breakfast there is such a thing as ham and there is such a thing as eggs, and my ideal breakfast has to include both, and I may prefer to eat the ham before the eggs. But that isn’t saying that before the eggs were eggs they were ham.

Quote:
So according to Paul's scheme of things in 1 Cor 15, christ was raised a spiritual body, but was sown a physical body.
Not the slightest hint of that in 1 Cor 15. According to Paul’s scheme of things, humans like the Corinthians are sown as physical bodies and raised as spiritual bodies, bodies like—respectively—Adam and Christ. Anything else is 19 centuries of tortured exegesis.

(Darn, 5200 words)

Earl Doherty
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Old 03-18-2011, 07:27 PM   #232
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Originally Posted by DCHindley
PS: Earl, even though I don't necessarily agree with you on many points, I'd be willing to help you sharpen your arguments, off list, if you'd like. I think that if you do this and really try to publish a monograph, it would help you distinguish what evidence is wheat and what is chaff.
Not sure whether I should regard this as an insult. However, I’ve seen the error of my ways and I’m simply not going to let myself get sucked into that any longer.
No insult. Just an honest offer, made after a positive criticism about how your observations could use a bit of fine tuning and pruning. On specific issues, I can probably identify why professional academics might not find your take on evidence convincing. You really can make your version of the hypothesis more palatable to academics by using interpretations of evidence that are generally accepted and not quite as over reaching as they seem to be (sublunar realms and all), then weaving them together into a reasonable explanation for the development of high christology.

It wasn't pulled from thin air, invented on the fly by a mad genius because folks needed something to believe in besides the emperor Tiberius. There were historical events in different parts of the empire that convereged to create it. This is where you should look next. What was or were the historical catalysts that caused it to precipitate from the soup of myths that circulated in those days. See, easy ...

Quote:
When I can spot something that deserves a response or clarification, including Neil’s “pathological vendetta” stuff, I’ll make a comment, as sharply as I can.

To which I will now proceed in regard to spin’s last response to me, as sharply as I can.
Sometimes it is best to let sleeping dogs lie. Remember, water off the duck's back ...

DCH
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Old 03-18-2011, 07:37 PM   #233
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I have tried to stay out of this mess for a while now but I will try and intervene. I have already made my case to spin that he has to consider the original Marcionite interpretation of the material. He points out that we don't know what the original material exactly looked like - and he's right. We don't know as much as we'd like.

Yet we do know enough that the Marcionite held that Jesus was something like what Earl is suggesting.
Stephan, can you outline what the Marcionites held with regard to Jesus that was something like what Earl is suggesting, and also when that belief was held (e.g. First Century, Second Century)? Earl isn't suggesting a phantom that walked among men, which is what I understood (perhaps incorrectly) to what the Marcionites held.
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Old 03-18-2011, 07:48 PM   #234
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Delete...why bother
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Old 03-19-2011, 12:01 AM   #235
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Delete...why bother
Calvin’s commentary on 1 Cor 15:47 , “Christ, the heavenly man”


Quote:
47. The first Adam was from the earth. The animal life comes first, because the earthy man is first. [119] The spiritual life will come afterwards, as Christ, the heavenly man, came after Adam. Now the Manichees perverted this passage, with the view of proving that Christ brought a body from heaven into the womb of the Virgin. They mistakingly imagined, however, that Paul speaks here of the substance of the body, while he is discoursing rather as to its condition, or quality. Hence, although the first man had an immortal soul, and that too, not taken from the earth, yet he, nevertheless, savoured of the earth, from which his body had sprung, and on which he had been appointed to live. Christ, on the other hand, brought us from heaven a life-giving Spirit, that he might regenerate us into a better life, and elevated above the earth. [120] In fine, we have it from Adam — that we live in this world, as branches from the root: Christ, on the other hand, is the beginning and author of the heavenly life...........
http://christianbookshelf.org/calvin...15_35-50.htm#1
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Old 03-19-2011, 12:38 AM   #236
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Originally Posted by DCHindley View Post
It wasn't pulled from thin air, invented on the fly by a mad genius because folks needed something to believe in besides the emperor Tiberius. There were historical events in different parts of the empire that convereged to create it. This is where you should look next. What was or were the historical catalysts that caused it to precipitate from the soup of myths that circulated in those days. See, easy ...
David, that is probably one of the best points made in this ‘debate’. The historical situation, on the ground so to speak, has to be considered. This whole “Paul” scenario did not just fall out of thin air - however much he might try his fancy tricks re visions...

Below is a quote from George Wells in regard to Earl’s theory. While one might find fault with Wells re specifics of his own theory - his attempt to incorporate some history, some flesh and blood reality, into his theory, is something that needs to be done if a mythicist position is ever going to go mainstream. And interestingly, in the quote, Wells concedes that Earl’s position could well have some relevance. So, maybe it’s a case of these two theories finding some common denominator and, hey presto, mythicism might just have a new lease on life....


Quote:
http://www.infidels.org/library/mode.../earliest.html

Doherty likewise holds that Paul speaks of Jesus 'in exclusively mythological terms'. I have never -- in spite of what some of my critics have alleged -- subscribed to such a view: for Paul does, after all, call Jesus a descendant of David (Rom. 1:3), born of a woman under the (Jewish) law (Gal.4:4), who lived as a servant to the circumcision (Rom. 15:8) and was crucified on a tree (Gal.3:13) and buried (I Cor. 15:4). Doherty interprets these passages from the Platonic premise that things on Earth have their 'counterparts' in the heavens. Thus 'within the spirit realm' Christ could be of David's stock, etc. But, if the 'spiritual' reality was believed to correspond in some way to a material equivalent on Earth, then the existence of the latter is conceded”.

“Perhaps Doherty's strongest point is Paul's assertion (1 Cor.2:8) that Jesus was crucified by supernatural forces (the archontes). I take this to mean that they prompted the action of human agents: but I must admit that the text ascribes the deed to the archontes themselves.”
So, basically, if one wants a theory re a heavenly, a spiritual, an intellectual, 'crucifixion' - then one also must have a corresponding earthly, flesh and blood, crucifixion.....First the earthly - and then the heavenly. First Adam and last Adam.....A dualism....(and no, none of this does anything for a historicist's position re JC....ie that gospel figure remains a literary, mythological construct)
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Old 03-19-2011, 12:41 AM   #237
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Originally Posted by stephan huller View Post
I have tried to stay out of this mess for a while now but I will try and intervene. I have already made my case to spin that he has to consider the original Marcionite interpretation of the material. He points out that we don't know what the original material exactly looked like - and he's right. We don't know as much as we'd like.

Yet we do know enough that the Marcionite held that Jesus was something like what Earl is suggesting.

It has to be acknowledged that you can't completelly get to the original Marcionite truth from the Catholic scriptures. If you could it would imply that the texts were pristine, which they certainly are not.

I think that everyone has to stop pretending that the texts we have reflect Paul's original writing. It is very frustrating to hear very smart people engage in such petty bickering.

If you think that the Letter to the Corinthians retains what was laid down in the original autograph of the apostle then please - continue this nonsense. As it stands this is like fighting over the shadow of an ass.
Loved it - "fighting over the shadow of an ass" -
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Old 03-19-2011, 01:25 AM   #238
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I apologize. I should have nipped some things in the bud, but I didn't, and things got out of hand.

This thread will probably be deep sixed into E. If you think there is anythng of value here, let me know and it will be split out and saved.
I think there is value in much of this thread. Deep sixing it would be a disservice to this forum.
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Old 03-19-2011, 01:40 AM   #239
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Loved it - "fighting over the shadow of an ass"
It's Celsus, the guy who wrote for Ed Sullivan years ago.
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Old 03-19-2011, 03:28 AM   #240
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Let's recap:
44 It is sown a physical body, it is raised a spiritual body. If there is a physical body, there is also a spiritual body. 45 Thus it is written, "The first man, Adam, became a living being"; the last Adam became a life-giving spirit. 46 But it is not the spiritual that is first, but the physical, and then the spiritual.
Looking at the implication of v.46, the physical is first, ie there is nothing before it. The spiritual is second, ie there is something before it, ie the physical body. This is a reflection of the process in 44a. Applying it to v.45, the first man became a living being (and there was nothing before that); the last Adam became a life-giving spirit (but there was something before that). This indicates that, before the last Adam had a spiritual body, he had another and the only option Paul supplies is that it was a physical body. As 44b indicates, you don't get one without there being the other, one after the other. So according to Paul's scheme of things in 1 Cor 15, christ was raised a spiritual body, but was sown a physical body.
No, no, no. This is egregiously wrong.

Verse 45 talks of two separate individuals. Adam and Christ. One is defined as physical. The other is defined as spiritual. The term “physical” is applied to Adam. The term “spiritual” is applied to Christ.
After hammering home the progress from one state to the other, in v.45 the text is actually continuing its discussion of the two states/bodies, by giving the first person to have had each.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post
When in verse 46, Paul speaks of the spiritual not as coming first, but “the physical comes first, then the spiritual,” he is saying that Adam came first, then Christ came second. As I pointed out, the NEB’s “Observe…” makes it clear that it is referring back to verse 45, that the terms “physical” and “spiritual” therein refer respectively back to Adam and Christ. He is in no way saying that a physical Christ came first and then a spiritual Christ.
This progress has already been shown. He doesn't need to repeat it after the third time.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post
Besides, why would Paul appeal to the two figures Adam and Christ to illustrate a process that Christ himself underwent? If Christ was a human before he became a spirit, then those two states of Christ himself, the former being an historical one and verifiable, would have been sufficient to make his point about what happens at resurrection. (This, of course, is what I've kept saying all along.)
He doesn't state that it is christ: it is implied. He is actually appealing to the notion of "Adam", the initial exemplar of the body, now two Adams, the first and the last, of the physical and the spiritual. The readers know Adam, but they haven't grasped the notion of resurrection for no-one has come back to tell the tale, so the text points to christ as the first raised to the spiritual body, a new Adam.

I have pointed out that v.45 does not exclude Adam from the second body, as it does not exclude christ from the first body. We should take the text's insistent relation between the two bodies as still relevant to the exemplars of each. Verse 46 tells us you don't have one without the other.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post
Verses 47-49 maintain the same separation between the two individuals, the two bodies, Adam and Christ, showing that verse 46 is also referring to the two individuals, not two states of Christ.
Not two states of christ, but two states of anyone, christ and Adam included.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post
Why would Paul in v.46 be bothering to say that the physical came first and the spiritual second if he were referring to the two states of an allegedly incarnated Christ?
Verse 46 refers to the progress mentioned in 42b-44a. It goes one way. And it rules out the notion of a spiritual christ before his crucifixion.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
The spiritual is second, ie there is something before it, ie the physical body.
It is not “something” that is before the spiritual, it is someone. Adam.
Verse 46 picks up the terms "physical" and "spiritual" from v.44, where they refer to the body, ie "something", not "someone". The discussion Paul is engaged in is "How are the dead raised? What kind of body do they come?"

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post
Paul is giving a sequence of two different “men”, the physical man and the spiritual man.
The text mentions the archetypes of the two bodies. It is the body that is important here. That is the topic.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post
This sequence idea is found back in 15:20-3 and in Romans 5:12f, one entity followed by another entity, the archetypal sinner followed by the redeemer of those sinners. That’s basic Pauline theology. Where would ‘the physical Jesus followed by the spiritual Christ’ idea fit into such a pattern?
It has just been explained in 42b-44 and 46. 1. physical body, 2. spiritual body. The text makes it clear and simple. Two bodies linked by death and resurrection.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post
Quote:
This is a reflection of the process in 44a.
No, it is not. Verse 44a, as I constantly reiterate, is part of 34-44a which is speaking of the process of the death and rising of those who doubt the feasibility of resurrection.
Repeating things enough doesn't make them right. It makes them familiar and comfortable. This is one argument by Paul. There is no artificial break in the text, despite some translators' actions. I have already pointed to a facsimile of the text in Codex Sinaiticus, that shows no break whatsoever. The text doesn't allow such a break. 44a and 44b share substantial language, language picked up in v.46. The separation between 35-44a and 44b-49 is not to be found in the text. It is artificial.

We have the one discourse which develops, building on what comes before. 44b reiterates the fact that there are two bodies then indicates they are linked. Verse 46 tells us that they are also ordered: the physical comes before the spiritual.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post
It does not include Christ, who had no such doubt.
Christ was not the audience.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post
To include Christ simply because he was, you claim, human being on earth...
My claim is based on Pauline statements. He was a man. He was born. He was under the law. He was a suitable sacrifice for those under the law.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post
a ...who was resurrected, is to read an arbitrary implication of him into the passage and beg the question.

Quote:
Applying it to v.45, the first man became a living being (and there was nothing before that); the last Adam became a life-giving spirit (but there was something before that). This indicates that, before the last Adam had a spiritual body, he had another and the only option Paul supplies is that it was a physical body.
Spin is still clinging to the erroneous understanding of 45b, that Christ “became” something, from some previous state. If it were so, there would be no logical parallel between 45a and 45b.
The parallel is based on the first to have had a physical body and a physical body.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post
Quote:
As 44b indicates, you don't get one without there being the other, one after the other.
Yes, for Paul’s purposes in arguing for resurrection, he needs both categories, the physical and the spiritual. But he offers those categories in terms of two separate entities, Adam and Christ.
Yup. They are the first in each category.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post
He doesn’t require that one of them was previously the other. If he did, then all he needed was Christ, who was both, in the proper sequence.
Christ wasn't the first physical body. It is the firstness of christ to become a spiritual body that is important. There are no other spiritual body as yet. And Paul is reassuring his audience that as christ has made it, so will everyone. As through the first Adam came human life, through the second will come spiritual life.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post
Quote:
So according to Paul's scheme of things in 1 Cor 15, christ was raised a spiritual body, but was sown a physical body.
Not the slightest hint of that in 1 Cor 15.
Paul repeated the notion of christ being raised several times in 1 Cor 15. He states that what is sown a physical body will be raised a spiritual body. Christ was raised and became a spiritual body. The implication that he was previously a physical body is inevitable.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post
According to Paul’s scheme of things, humans like the Corinthians are sown as physical bodies and raised as spiritual bodies, bodies like—respectively—Adam and Christ.
The text doesn't say that the only ones raised are the Corinthians.

Paul has indicated that christ was human. If he weren't then Paul's notion of christ's sacrifice would be meaningless and the story of his resurrection would be inconsequential.
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