Freethought & Rationalism ArchiveThe archives are read only. |
08-10-2009, 01:27 PM | #21 | ||
Veteran Member
Join Date: Aug 2008
Location: Canada
Posts: 2,305
|
Well I can't disprove your theory, but I don't see much evidence for it. In Romans Paul says more than once that Jews and gentiles are equal in the eyes of God. Where exactly does Paul express interest in the property rights of non-Christian Jews? His focus is supposedly the Parousia, the coming of the Christ and the new age, when ordinary social rules won't apply anymore. The promise of eternal life is offered to Jews and gentiles alike.
Paul didn't spend much time in Judea according to the texts. He seems to have visited mainly diaspora synagogues in his travels, probably preaching to gentile proselytes (Godfearers). Jewish property law wouldn't be relevant to these territories, they were in gentile hands. If Paul was working for Jewish interests he seems to have failed completely. There's no notice of him in the Mishnah, where one might expect a review of his efforts if they were pro-Israel. Quote:
|
||
08-11-2009, 09:55 AM | #22 | |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Jan 2008
Location: Latin America
Posts: 4,066
|
Quote:
|
|
08-11-2009, 12:35 PM | #24 |
Contributor
Join Date: Jun 2000
Location: Los Angeles area
Posts: 40,549
|
[staffwarn]This whole thread is Apparently NOT To Be Taken Seriously.[/staffwarn]
|
Thread Tools | Search this Thread |
|