ApostateAbe

Thanks, noted.

Thanks again!
Not really. If we are talking about Greek, the word "κυριου" is used the same way that we use the word "lord." It could be God or it could be a human being. See the LXX 1 Kings 1:2, for example. Either way, Paul many times uses it as a title for Jesus. The word "θεός", on the other hand, is a word used exclusively for God.

Loomis

Call me sick but I think this is a really interesting subject - we’ve talked about it before.

Get a load of Romans 10:9-13 and Acts 2:14-21.

Those passages depend on the absence of Yahweh in Isaiah 28, Joel 2, Psalm 16, etc.

Those passages depend on the presence of Lord (kurios) in Isaiah 28, Joel 2, Psalm 16, etc.

Those passages are written as if the authors never heard of the god called Yahweh. It has to do with "Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved." The authors cite Joel 2:32 in a way that only makes sense if the “lord” was a nameless divinity separate from God. The whole point of those passages is to associate the name 'Jesus' with that nameless divinity.

I can’t find one single passage to show that any New Testament author ever heard of Yahweh. They either never heard of him or else they were making a conscious/ deliberate effort to remove him from the OT.

Loomis

It looks vague and ambiguous to me. The story is fiction. Avoid reading more into it than what is actually there. It’s possible that the author didn’t know who his “angel of the Lord” was any more than you or I do. It’s possible that he was just mining/ barrowing expressions from the OT and didn’t really care who his angel was.

The "angel" character probably does not live outside of the context of the story.

dogsgod

Thank you for your responses.

Does the Greek form of brother of the Lord allow for James to be a brother of the Lord God, or does it only allow for a literal brother? I've been told the latter only, but when I came across angel of the Lord I thought I'd ask.

Loomis

That’s a false dilemma.

If you are genuinely interested in this subject then why have you rejected the possibility that it refers to a spiritual (non-literal) brother in faith to the Lord Jesus who, according to Acts 2:24, was a man raised from the dead by God?

Toto

The Greek word translated brother in other contexts clearly means "fellow believer."

judge

Well if there is one thing we can learn from religious people it is that we can make the bible mean anything we want it to mean. :devil1:

One question is that if paul meant God Almighty then why didnt he use the word for god that he used in surrounding verses?

1Paul, an apostle—sent not from men nor by man, but by Jesus Christ and God the Father, who raised him from the dead— 2and all the brothers with me,


3Grace and peace to you from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ, 4who gave himself for our sins to rescue us from the present evil age, according to the will of our God and Father, 5to whom be glory for ever and ever. Amen.


6I am astonished that you are so quickly deserting the one who called you by the grace of Christ and are turning to a different gospel— 7which is really no gospel at all. Evidently some people are throwing you into confusion and are trying to pervert the gospel of Christ. 8But even if we or an angel from heaven should preach a gospel other than the one we preached to you, let him be eternally condemned! 9As we have already said, so now I say again: If anybody is preaching to you a gospel other than what you accepted, let him be eternally condemned!
10Am I now trying to win the approval of men, or of God? Or am I trying to please men? If I were still trying to please men, I would not be a servant of Christ.


11I want you to know, brothers, that the gospel I preached is not something that man made up. 12I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it; rather, I received it by revelation from Jesus Christ.
13For you have heard of my previous way of life in Judaism, how intensely I persecuted the church of God and tried to destroy it. 14I was advancing in Judaism beyond many Jews of my own age and was extremely zealous for the traditions of my fathers. 15But when God, who set me apart from birth and called me by his grace, was pleased 16to reveal his Son in me so that I might preach him among the Gentiles, I did not consult any man, 17nor did I go up to Jerusalem to see those who were apostles before I was, but I went immediately into Arabia and later returned to Damascus.

18Then after three years, I went up to Jerusalem to get acquainted with Peter and stayed with him fifteen days. 19I saw none of the other apostles—only James, the Lord's brother. 20I assure you before God that what I am writing you is no lie. 21Later I went to Syria and Cilicia. 22I was personally unknown to the churches of Judea that are in Christ. 23They only heard the report: "The man who formerly persecuted us is now preaching the faith he once tried to destroy." 24And they praised God because of me.

All the words in red are the greek word theos (or a variation).
Similar problems may present themselves for those arguing for it to be a literal brother.

judge

Are you sure? How many other contexts?

dogsgod

I didn't mean to reject it. Does the Greek allow for a spiritual brother as it is worded?

judge

Maybe "brothers of the Lord" in 1 Corinthians means literal brother?
What do you think?

How can we rule out that interpretation in 1 Corithinians 9:5