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Old 05-07-2007, 12:59 PM   #131
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Ok I looked at it. Can you explain what you find compelling about it? If anything?

Thanks
The expressions are Latin turned Greek. This is a different sort of thing than a loanword. It is the mind of a man who speaks Latin at work in Greek.

Ben.
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Old 05-07-2007, 02:33 PM   #132
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The expressions are Latin turned Greek. This is a different sort of thing than a loanword. It is the mind of a man who speaks Latin at work in Greek.

Ben.
Really ? Do you have another example of a Latin speaker doing this?

If not how are you so sure?
I can see it is a theory , but compelling?
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Old 05-07-2007, 05:59 PM   #133
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Really ? Do you have another example of a Latin speaker doing this?
Josephus, I think, yet another writer who knew Aramaic, wrote in Greek, but from Rome. Check out this abstract from Joel Ward.

Also, as English-Spanish bilingual I have seen examples of it happening between those two languages firsthand.

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Old 05-07-2007, 08:03 PM   #134
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This time your copying and pasting has mangled the Greek as badly as you usually mangle the Aramaic.
I've just discovered that the mangling I refer to is not judge's fault at all, but it comes from his source which I found while casually looking for something. So a apology to judge for a wrongful accusation of mangling.


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Old 05-08-2007, 12:33 AM   #135
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Josephus, I think, yet another writer who knew Aramaic, wrote in Greek, but from Rome. Check out this abstract from Joel Ward.
He translated some of his own work into greek (he tells us this himself), and possibly wrote some of his works in greek, but only possibly.
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Old 05-08-2007, 09:23 PM   #136
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He also doesn't mention the apostles by name; on the same logic presumably this means that they didn't have any....

All the best,

Roger Pearse
Do you think the mention of Peter by Justin is an interpolation?
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Old 05-08-2007, 09:28 PM   #137
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...


Only "may be", huh?. Are "may be's" sufficient grounds on which to base an argument or a claim?
I have noticed quite a few caveats and conditionals in the posts on this forum. This is entirely appropriate when a statement contains any degree of uncertainty.

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In any case, what reasons are there for saying that the word "gospel" has been interpolated into Justin?

JG
Typo. I should have written the word "gospels".
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Old 05-08-2007, 10:27 PM   #138
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He translated some of his own work into greek (he tells us this himself), and possibly wrote some of his works in greek, but only possibly.
And yet his work has Latinisms. Just like Mark.

Your move.

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Old 05-09-2007, 12:55 AM   #139
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And yet his work has Latinisms. Just like Mark.

Your move.

Ben.

And....?
Im not sure why this means he wrote in greek.
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Old 05-09-2007, 05:49 AM   #140
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And....?
Im not sure why this means he wrote in greek.
That was not my point (though I do think Mark wrote in Greek). You had tried to limit the Latinisms in Mark to loan words. I was pointing out that the Latinisms in Mark go beyond loan words. That is all. (The difference between Latin loan words and Latin language structures, in practical terms, is that somebody with no Latin at all can use a loan word, but only a person with Latin is likely to use a Latin language structure.)

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