Ben C Smith

The expressions are Latin turned Greek. This is a different sort of thing than a loanword. It is the mind of a man who speaks Latin at work in Greek.

Ben.

judge

Really ? Do you have another example of a Latin speaker doing this?

If not how are you so sure?
I can see it is a theory , but compelling?

Ben C Smith

Josephus, I think, yet another writer who knew Aramaic, wrote in Greek, but from Rome. Check out this abstract from Joel Ward.

Also, as English-Spanish bilingual I have seen examples of it happening between those two languages firsthand.

Ben.

spin

I've just discovered that the mangling I refer to is not judge's fault at all, but it comes from his source which I found while casually looking for something. So a apology to judge for a wrongful accusation of mangling.


spin

judge

He translated some of his own work into greek (he tells us this himself), and possibly wrote some of his works in greek, but only possibly.

jakejonesiv

Do you think the mention of Peter by Justin is an interpolation?

jakejonesiv

I have noticed quite a few caveats and conditionals in the posts on this forum. This is entirely appropriate when a statement contains any degree of uncertainty.

Typo. I should have written the word "gospels".

Ben C Smith

And yet his work has Latinisms. Just like Mark.

Your move.

Ben.

judge

And....?
Im not sure why this means he wrote in greek.

Ben C Smith

That was not my point (though I do think Mark wrote in Greek). You had tried to limit the Latinisms in Mark to loan words. I was pointing out that the Latinisms in Mark go beyond loan words. That is all. (The difference between Latin loan words and Latin language structures, in practical terms, is that somebody with no Latin at all can use a loan word, but only a person with Latin is likely to use a Latin language structure.)

Ben.