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04-05-2013, 05:38 PM | #11 | ||||
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The Greek text is available here: An Epigram on Apollonius of Tyana C. P. Jones The Journal of Hellenic Studies Vol. 100, Centennary Issue (1980), pp. 190-194 Quote:
Robin Lane Fox suggests it could be as late as the rule of Diocletian. εὐδαιμονία | eudaimonia |
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04-05-2013, 06:13 PM | #12 | ||||||
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And surely, he's not the only one who has made suggestions about the inscription's date. Does not Jones speak to this? How about Miroslav Marcovich in his "The Epigram on Apollonius of Tyana", Zeitschrift für Papyrologie und Epigraphik Bd. 45, (1982), pp. 263-265? What do E. L. Bowie G. Dagron and J. Marcillet Jaubert, who first published and first commented upon the inscription have to say? And how nice of you to not comment on, or even acknowledge, let alone admit the truth of, what I pointed out to you -- that if it's true, as you seem to want to claim, that the Gospels are based upon, and draw from, Philostratur's VA, you other thesis, desperately argued and defended by you ad nauseam, about how Christians "subverting" the meaning of daimon goes to hell in a hand-basket. Jeffrey |
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04-05-2013, 09:14 PM | #13 | ||||||||
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I am still contemplating the possibilities, to which we may add the way Plotinus uses the term "daimon" in his Enneads. εὐδαιμονία | eudaimonia |
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04-05-2013, 09:53 PM | #14 | |
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The problem here is, we don't know. They both could have been using similar themes of that generation and time period. We do have two distinct characters though despite any debate. On Pete's side, Jesus legends may have been influenced by Apollonius. Against Pete's side, it would only be influence and not a historical core to the Jesus legends. I don't debate Pete, based on his perception and translation of evidence, but he may have a point buried in here somewhere. Its just not worth the hassle investigating. |
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04-05-2013, 10:56 PM | #15 | ||||||||
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This verb? Which verb is that?? And what word do you see as the one that might be "sins" rather than "faults/pains"? Quote:
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QED 0n your own logic, Christians did not subvert the word. Man up, Pete, this is the only possibility if the VA is earlier than the Gospels. Stop trying to weasel out of the conclusion that your own premises demand. Jeffrey |
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04-06-2013, 06:52 PM | #16 | |||||||||||||
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Alternatively, "drive pains from men", appears a similar theme. Quote:
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But Jones makes mention in his article in a number of places this implication: Quote:
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Philostratus used the term in a biography (Eusebius calls it a history) of Apollonius of Tyana. This biography was not used as a "holy writ" upon which a centralised monotheistic state religious cult was based. OTOH the gospels were used for such a purpose, and in their use for such a purpose, the gospels were elevated above all other literature. The claim for subversion is also associated with this elevation, which as we all know was accomplished by the Emperor Constantine, when he selected the books of the NT and the LXX as the holy writ for the Roman Empire c.324/325 CE. εὐδαιμονία | eudaimonia |
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