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Old 05-31-2012, 12:24 AM   #451
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Could not these 2nd century and later writings not be copies of 1st century material which we no longer have ? The majority consensus seems to be that Paul wrote his first epistle sometime in the 50s, with gMark sometime in the 65-70s with the others following up to and could be more, around from late 1st century to mid 2nd century for gJohn. This is the majority view which doesn't mean it's correct any more than Coke is the best flavoured drink because it's the biggest selling.
Possible, but these copies could have been "improved" to meet the new beliefs of the 2nd (and the 3rd) century. As long as we have no copies of the end of the 1st century, we cannot say anything.
That's very likely. Look at the gospels, the longer the time span, the more magical they become. The more theological and complex, especially gJohn.This dude whoever was the author was either eating magic mushrooms or was completely deluded, not to mention revelation. :huh:
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Old 05-31-2012, 07:52 AM   #452
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The contrasts between Galatians and the Paul sections of Acts are made more complicated by the absence of any alternative versions of either document. We would want to see a manuscript were either the Galatians Paul is said to have had the name Saul, or where the Acts Paul is said to have been sought for arrest by Aretas or was a student of Gamliel.

We are left wondering why the author of Galatians would not have thrown in the name Saul at least once had he known about Acts, or alternatively why the author of Acts would have mentioned persecution by the Jews in Damascus had he known about Galatians when this is mentioned nowhere in Galatians.

Of course we know that when these texts were written they werer not intended to be holy writ, so the sect leaders would not have minded contradictions if they thought the texts emerged from different sources who had different "traditions" about Paul.

This reinforces my view that interpolations were not centralized and intentional, because had they been so, the emerging Orthodox would have enhanced the consistency between Galatians and Acts, instead of sloppiness with inconsistencies, and no one would have even noticed.
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Old 05-31-2012, 08:56 AM   #453
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.....This reinforces my view that interpolations were not centralized and intentional, because had they been so, the emerging Orthodox would have enhanced the consistency between Galatians and Acts, instead of sloppiness with inconsistencies, and no one would have even noticed.
Your view does not make much sense because we find Galatians and Acts in the very same Canon.

It was a Centralized body that INTENTIONALLY CANONIZED Acts of the Apostles and Galatians.

Once you understand that Galatians NEEDS Acts of the Apostles then you will see that Galatians is a CORRECTION of the chronology in Acts.

The Galatians writer would have NOT have needed to claim he was NOT lying if there was no other version of the Pauline chronology.

Galatians 1:20 KJV---Now the things which I write unto you, behold , before God , I lie not.
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Old 05-31-2012, 09:17 AM   #454
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Then it just begs the question. If "Paul" isn't "lying" in Galatians then maybe he IS LYING in Acts.

I KNOW the centralize hierarchy accepted both into their canon despite the contradictions. I also said this fact would suggest that interpolations were not apparently the result of an intentional effort to insert an array of doctrinal issues that would clean up the contradictions.

I was arguing that the texts were accepted even before they were ever considered as holy writ whereby the possibility also existed that the sect did not necessarily believe that Galatians was actually a first-hand text written by "Paul" any more than Acts was. So if that's the case, then they accepted both as "traditions" about Paul without knowing which should be considered "historically correct."

Thus the contradictions appear a problem only from an analytic perspective where one assumes that Galatians was written by someone actually claiming to be Paul recounting his own life.

But if the original attitude of the readers (with or without interpolations) was that it was NOT actually written by Paul but merely a didactic tool, then the contradictions were not a problem.

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.....This reinforces my view that interpolations were not centralized and intentional, because had they been so, the emerging Orthodox would have enhanced the consistency between Galatians and Acts, instead of sloppiness with inconsistencies, and no one would have even noticed.
Your view does not make much sense because we find Galatians and Acts in the very same Canon.

It was a Centralized body that INTENTIONALLY CANONIZED Acts of the Apostles and Galatians.

Once you understand that Galatians NEEDS Acts of the Apostles then you will see that Galatians is a CORRECTION of the chronology in Acts.

The Galatians writer would have NOT have needed to claim he was NOT lying if there was no other version of the Pauline chronology.

Galatians 1:20 KJV---Now the things which I write unto you, behold , before God , I lie not.
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Old 05-31-2012, 12:27 PM   #455
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Then it just begs the question. If "Paul" isn't "lying" in Galatians then maybe he IS LYING in Acts....
The character called Paul in Galatians did NOT claim he wrote Acts of the Apostles. If the author of Acts is NOT lying then the author of Galatians may be lying.
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Old 06-01-2012, 01:00 AM   #456
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The general consensuses among babblical scholars is that the author of Luke is also the author or acts.
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Old 06-01-2012, 07:52 AM   #457
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The general consensuses among babblical scholars is that the author of Luke is also the author or acts.
And the general "consensus" among scholars who believe Jesus existed is that Jesus existed.

At this time, the so-called general "consensus" is of no significance because it has been EXPOSED the Scholarship has ZERO credible evidence from antiquity but are ENGAGED in Guesswork, Logical fallacies and Presumptions for their claims about Jesus and the Pauline letters.

If the author of gLuke is the author of Acts why did NOT the author identify him/herself to remove any doubt???

Plus, it is very little use to claim gLuke and Acts have the the same author when they were written AFTER the 1st century so are NOT really contemporary writings of Jesus, the disciples and Paul.
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Old 06-03-2012, 02:29 AM   #458
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There is no contemporary writings of Jesus .
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Old 06-03-2012, 03:29 AM   #459
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There is no contemporary writings of Jesus .
It's great when you can get others to do the hard slog for you.
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Old 06-03-2012, 08:20 AM   #460
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You already pointed out that "Paul" was not in fact a liar.
The fact that the Paul of Acts doesn't mention writing epistles doesn't matter. If you say that Galatians corrects Acts in certain matters, then you can argue that it corrects Acts in other matters. But maybe "Paul" is lying in Acts.

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Then it just begs the question. If "Paul" isn't "lying" in Galatians then maybe he IS LYING in Acts....
The character called Paul in Galatians did NOT claim he wrote Acts of the Apostles. If the author of Acts is NOT lying then the author of Galatians may be lying.
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