Geetarmoore

It has some possible ties to Pythagorism.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Catch_of_153_fish

Clivedurdle

http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showthread.php?t=223795

Malachi151

So were most Jewish texts at this time. During the 200 years prior to the writing of the New Testament texts Jewish texts were increasingly written in Greek. This is why the Jewish cannon ends after the book of Daniel, because later compilers used the language as a criteria to determine what could be canonized. The Catholic Old Testament apocrypha is composed largely of Jewish works written in Greek.

Also, by the 1st century only 18% of tombs in Jerusalem were inscribed in Hebrew or Aramaic, most were inscribed in Greek.

Jeffrey Gibson

You might then want to have a look at the discussion of proposals from Jerome to modern times that appears on pp. 401-403 of G.R. Beasley-Murray's Word Biblical Commentary on GJohn (or via: amazon.co.uk), not to mention its counterpart on pp. 1074-1076 in Ray Brown's Anchor Commentary on John (or via: amazon.co.uk) and on pp. 1231-33 in Craig Keener's Hendrickson commentary (or via: amazon.co.uk).

Jeffrey

schilling.klaus

all of them are outright forgeries.

as one sees from the high number of authentic-Pauline-believers,
and believers in Galilean origin of Christianity,
the naivity of mainliners knows no limit.

The marcionite (more original) version of the epistles knows no
'according to Scripture', it's a fraudulent interpolation by
Judaising Roman Catholics like Justin Martyr, Polycarp, and Irenaeus.
Marcion was already aware of an abomination going on
in certain communities that judaised Christianity, and opposed to it.


Klaus Schilling

Jeffrey Gibson

And your evidence for this global claim is ...?

Jeffrey

Loomis

I think this is an interesting subject. I noticed something kind of weird and would like productive comments. I started a new thread about it here.

Loomis

Yes. I'll add this: In Romans 10:13 Paul quoted Joel 2:32 from the Old Testament. But he misunderstood the meaning of the word “Lord” because the LXX reads “Lord” and not Yahweh.

mountainman

Thus if the authors of the gospels at the least were
very Hellenised Jews, why seek Jewish explications
of the story, and theme, and origins?

Best wishes,


Pete Brown

mountainman

Jeffrey,

It is a possibility that may as well be factored in
since we have today the use of computers by
which we may entertain more than one myopia
at the one time.

Best wishes,



Pete Brown