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Old 04-03-2007, 11:04 PM   #461
J-D
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Originally Posted by mountainman View Post
It should be borne in mind that any measure of "historicity"
attributable to a postulated HJ is a measure conducted by
means of a series of objectively defined criteria which, in
the scientific and logical sense, can be applied to any figure
purported to exist at the same epoch in antiquity.

In a separate thread entitled
comparitive historicity (Apollonius of Tyana c.f. Jesus of Nazareth)

is should be apparent that the former figure appears to have
a substantially higher degree of "historicity".

Consequently, any theory of the "Historical Jesus" or indeed
any theory of the "Mythical" or "fictional" Jesus Christ, must
necessarily spend some time on what role the widely published
writings of Apollonius of Tyana, and indeed his popular 3rd
century biography, had on the development of "the purported
historical evolution of christianity".
I'm not sure what your point is. I never said that Apollonius of Tyana could never have existed, nor did anybody else that I know of.

If you are suggesting that the development of stories of the life of Jesus were influenced by the stories about Apollonius, you may well be right, but that doesn't tell us one way or the other whether there is anything historically accurate in the stories about Jesus.
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Old 04-04-2007, 02:59 AM   #462
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Default Herodian-Pharisee alignment against Jesus

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Originally Posted by J-D
The analogy I used previously was one of the Republican Party 'going forth to take counsel' (I think that was the phrase) with the Communists. Can you give me any definite historical example of that? Failing that, can you give a credible account of how and why the Pharisees might have 'gone forth to take counsel' with the Herodians? Many things are possible in politics: but not everything.
Ok, we have discarded spin's mistaken argument that the Herodian-Pharisee alignment was a Markan uniqueness.

Now to the details of your analogy. It is so flawed that I did not even bother with it. In the USA the Communist Party has been a non-entity (have they ever elected anybody anywhere?) with a combination of Russian $ (for awhile, for Gus Hall and friends) and FBI membership. They would barely counsel or align with the Trotskyites (maybe to arrange the time of a brawl, or were the brawls only between Trotskyite factions?) much less the Democrats or Republicans.

In European countries that have a significant Communist Party they are aligned with all the time on issues by other parties. Issue-by-issue, case-by-case. A far more sensible analogy. They may even end up with ministers in a government that does not share their views at all.

The Herodians and the Pharisees both had major power bases. If they felt that base threatened by an outside source they might easily counsel and align against that outside threat. An alignment of convenience, a tactical alignment against a perceived outside threat.

As I said the whole argument here of incredulity is flimsy. It appears on face to be an argument of no substance.

One wonders if a real 1st-century historian like the late David Flusser would even remotely raise this as a NT historicity concern.

Shalom,
Steven Avery
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Old 04-04-2007, 03:57 AM   #463
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Originally Posted by J-D View Post
What about Tertullian himself? Do you accept his writings as evidence of the existence of Christianity in the second and third centuries, before Constantine?
IMO Tertullian is a fictitious author tendered by Eusebius
in the fourth century under Constantine. If you follow the
reference in the original post you'd have ended up with
this thread:
Eusebius Forged the Vienne/Lyon Martyrs' Letter
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Old 04-04-2007, 04:24 AM   #464
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Ok, we have discarded spin's mistaken argument that the Herodian-Pharisee alignment was a Markan uniqueness.
Yes, we know praxeus tends to put his fingers in his ears to avoid things.

I said this:
The writers of Matt (12:14) and Luke (6:11) obviously agree: they left out the reference to the Herodians found in Mk 3:6.
which your mumbling will not get around. Neither Matt nor Luke maintain Herodians in their parallels to Mk 3:6. In fact, Luke has omitted both references to Herodians found in his Marcan source. Matt has only omitted one. Why omit even one? Surely Mark didn't need such a correction. But obviously it did. The only real question, given that Luke omitted both references, is why Matt kept one of the two.

This is where the notion of fatigue comes in. When you make changes, you sometimes forget all the changes that you intended to make.


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Old 04-04-2007, 05:00 AM   #465
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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
The writers of Matt (12:14) and Luke (6:11) obviously agree: they left out the reference to the Herodians found in Mk 3:6.
spin .. anybody can see that you obviously missed or deliberately omitted :

Matthew 22:15-18
Then went the Pharisees,
and took counsel how they might entangle him in his talk.
And they sent out unto him their disciples with the Herodians,


In the past with such errors you have been slow to acknowledge which one ... your own lack of knowledge/research/checking or a deliberate omission designed to confuse the reader by leaving out the most pertinent information.

Either way you failed, Matthew confirms Mark on the Herodian-Pharisee alignment, your later patchquilt spinning is irrelevant.

We know you simply rewrite the text to match your theories as in the Corinthians verses with "the Lord Jesus". (Supposed multiple concurring interpolations (!) 3rd century or later, that took over the Greek, Latin and Syriac and other textlines textlines in toto, leaving no trace of the earlier text (!) and all to put in a definite article type of saying for Paul .. rarely does anyone come up with a more absurd theory than this.)

This is similar, you simply manufacture an absurd textual theory (fatigue) to match your own doctrines. Such theories are only your own personal apparently ad-hoc (no scholar actually referenced) newly-fabricated conjectures of convenience, designed solely to match your existing argument with not a shred of real evidence. No more, no less.

Shalom,
Steven Avery
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Old 04-04-2007, 05:56 AM   #466
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Originally Posted by praxeus View Post
spin .. anybody can see that you obviously missed or deliberately omitted :

Matthew 22:15-18
Then went the Pharisees,
and took counsel how they might entangle him in his talk.
And they sent out unto him their disciples with the Herodians,
Anybody can see that you don't know what you're talking about. If I knew that there were no parallels to Mk 3:6 Herodians, do you honestly believe that, despite the fact that you'd quoted the bloody thing before that one wouldn't know that Matt does use Herodians once? You are kidding yourself.

Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus View Post
In the past with such errors you have been slow to acknowledge which one ... your own lack of knowledge/research/checking or a deliberate omission designed to confuse the reader by leaving out the most pertinent information.
You are the one who tends not to know what you're talking about here.

Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus View Post
Either way you failed, Matthew confirms Mark on the Herodian-Pharisee alignment, your later patchquilt spinning is irrelevant.
You haven't got it yet. And I note you obviously avoid Luke because it omits both Marcan references to Herodians. You have to hand wave about the one that got left in. "Look, look, forget about those, look here -- so three were omitted, but look, look, one's still here!!!"

Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus View Post
We know you simply rewrite the text to match your theories as in the Corinthians verses with "the Lord Jesus".
You're trying, but you're not making sense. Try to make a clear point so that I can put you out of your misery.

Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus View Post
(Supposed multiple concurring interpolations (!) 3rd century or later, that took over the Greek, Latin and Syriac and other textlines textlines in toto, leaving no trace of the earlier text (!) and all to put in a definite article type of saying for Paul .. rarely does anyone come up with a more absurd theory than this.)
I can understand that you wouldn't like the idea of interpolations. You'd prefer linguistic mayhem instead. Typical. Sense means very little to you. It's the letter, not the intent.

Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus View Post
This is similar, you simply manufacture an absurd textual theory (fatigue) to match your own doctrines.
You don't have to show the fact that you don't know what you're talking about. Fatigue is not a new idea, perhaps except for you. If you can get over yourself, you might learn something here yet... but I doubt it.


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Old 04-04-2007, 07:50 AM   #467
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Do you actually believe identifying this single claim as false eliminates all the possibilities you list above?
It is a known fact that a person cannot be conceived without sexual contact. The authors of the NT claimed that Mary had no sexual contact with Joseph, and in addition that some Holy Ghost is the cause of the child Jesus, who pre-existed as the Word, commonly called God.

Now, this is undeniable fiction or folklore.

Again, I ask the question, the same question put forward by Mary in Luke 1:34, 'Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?
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Old 04-04-2007, 07:57 AM   #468
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An old joke:

Why do people think Jesus was Italian?

Because he didn't leave home till he was thirty. His mother thought he was a god and he thought his mother was a virgin.
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Old 04-04-2007, 08:02 AM   #469
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Originally Posted by Chris Weimer View Post
I officially claim that aa5874 is the son of God.

Does this mean he no longer exists? If so, I also proclaim that (rambles off a long list of names of people...)
If I exist and you falsely claim that I am the son of God, then Jesus the Christ exist. Absolute trash.
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Old 04-04-2007, 08:17 AM   #470
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Originally Posted by J-D View Post
If the same word is used to refer to different groups, it seems to me that it is a legitimate question to ask why the same word is being used to refer to different groups.
Well you can read 'Against Heresies' by Irenaeus and see if you can come up with an answer to your question.

At one time, a 'Protestant' was not a 'Christian' because some other 'Christians' believed that they were the only true 'Christians'.
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