Freethought & Rationalism Archive

hatsoff · 08-15-2007, 02:10 PM

Hey, all. I've got a quick question: When Jerome, in his prologues to and regarding the Old Testament Apocrypha, declares that certain books were translated from "Chaldean words," what does he mean? Is "Chaldean words" the same as saying Koine Greek? Or some other language? Or can we even be sure?

Thanks in advance!

Toto · 08-15-2007, 02:28 PM

Chaldean refers to Babylonia. The language was probably related to Aramaic or Syriac.

Jerome:

Quote:

Here to facilitate his intercourse with the people, he was obliged to learn Syriac; and this language doubtless aided him later in his Hebrew studies .... Here also he began with great labor to study Hebrew, with the aid of a baptized Jew (ib. cxxv. 12), and it may be he of whom he says (ib. xviii. 10) that he was regarded by Jewish scholars as a Chaldean and as a master of the interpretation of Scripture (ib. cxxv. 12). On a second visit to Antioch Jerome was ordained a priest. He then went to Constantinople, and thence to Rome, where he undertook literary work for Pope Damasus, beginning at the same time his own Biblical works (c. 383). He finally settled at Bethlehem in Palestine (c. 385), founding a monastery there which he directed down to his death. This outline of Jerome's life indicates that he was a master of Latin and Greek learning, and by studying furthermore Syriac and Hebrew united in his person the culture of the East and of the West.

08-15-2007, 02:10 PM	#1
hatsoff Senior Member Join Date: Jan 2006 Location: Rockford, IL Posts: 740	Quick question: Jerome's "Chaldean words" Hey, all. I've got a quick question: When Jerome, in his prologues to and regarding the Old Testament Apocrypha, declares that certain books were translated from "Chaldean words," what does he mean? Is "Chaldean words" the same as saying Koine Greek? Or some other language? Or can we even be sure? Thanks in advance!

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