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Old 12-11-2007, 10:48 AM   #111
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Originally Posted by gstafleu
While doing so he must have taken on a form of "flesh" that was more compatible with human interaction than whatever his native substance is. As another example, consider the Pharaoh, who was an incarnation of Ra. So I don't think the concept as such is sui generis to the epistles....
I agree! In pagan thought the pagan gods regularly took on some form of flesh, even if not real flesh, in order to interact with humans. This was also the position of the docetics concerning Jesus.

But do you not see that this, if it is indeed our best analogy, tends to cancel out any non-earthly yet fleshly realm? The gods took on some kind of flesh in order to interact with humans on earth. The pharoah ruled on earth; Semele lived on earth (in or near Thebes, IIRC). Unless you can show me otherwise.

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Old 12-11-2007, 10:58 AM   #112
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The impregnation of Semele by Zeus and Ra taking the form of the Pharaoh both seem clearly to be events upon earth rather than in some non-earthly realm.
Sure. I was giving possible examples of beings that do not consist of normal human flesh taking on (an approximation of) such flesh, regardless of where this took place. As I said, if you narrow the concept down far enough it will automatically become sui generis to whatever tradition you are narrowing it down to. Does the taking on of "flesh" have to be in a non earthly location in order to count as an example? I can't see why, tho.

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Old 12-11-2007, 11:09 AM   #113
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I agree! In pagan thought the pagan gods regularly took on some form of flesh, even if not real flesh, in order to interact with humans. This was also the position of the docetics concerning Jesus.

But do you not see that this, if it is indeed our best analogy, tends to cancel out any non-earthly yet fleshly realm? The gods took on some kind of flesh in order to interact with humans on earth. The pharoah ruled on earth; Semele lived on earth (in or near Thebes, IIRC). Unless you can show me otherwise.
First of all let me say that I personally don't have a stake in the "non-earthly yet fleshly realm" idea. I know Earl really likes it, and he may well be right. We do know that at the time there was an idea of these spheres around the earth, Cicero's Dream of Scipio e.g. Perhaps the epistolians (new word?) placed Christ's sacrifice there. But if it turns out they didn't and Christ turns out to have the same kind of "historicity" as e.g. Dionysus, fine.

Now, does the fact that my examples took place on earth cancel out the idea that Christ's sacrifice in Hebrews took place somewhere else? It doesn't lend support for the "somewhere else" part, just for the "taking on flesh" part (which, regarding the flesh phrase, was of course what we initially were talking about). But "cancel out" is a bit too much, I think. As I said, cultures added sui generis shapings to common ideas, and perhaps the idea of Christ doing his bit in one of the spheres (no doubt accompanied by suitable music thereof ) may have been an idea unique to Hebrews (or the epistolians in general).

Gerard Stafleu
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Old 12-11-2007, 11:25 AM   #114
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From an internal perspective, Gerard, I would like to see how you treat Hebrews 2.14-17:
Since, then, the children share in flesh and blood, he himself likewise also partook of the same, that through death he might render powerless him who had the power of death, that is, the devil, and might deliver those who through fear of death were subject to slavery all their lives. For assuredly he does not give help to angels, but he gives help to the seed of Abraham. Therefore, he had to be made like his brethren in all things....
How does being made to partake of the same stuff as human beings and being made like his brethren (presumably the seed of Abraham, or Jews) in all things fit into the myth case we are discussing, IYO?
Ah yes, these details, little devils they are. The problem here is in the all isn't it? If Jesus is "like" humans in all respects, he must have been on earth, like humans. Of course in that case he actually was a 100% human and could never have resurrected, as humans don't do that. A little problem. The solution is probably in the "like" idea. You find that in the famous phrase "as above, thus below," an idea that seems to pervade mythology. In this case I think that the "like" indicates that the "all" is not quite as absolute as it could be. In other words, he became very human-like while staying "up there."

Having said this, as I pointed out as far as I'm concerned he could have done his taking on flesh bit on terra firma as well, just as Dionysus did. In both cases Christ remains mythical in the same way as Dionysos is mythical. And yes, an actual descent to earth would make his identification with humanity stronger and thus his sacrifice more efficient. You may remember from another thread my idea that the whole thing developed in order to get this super-transcendent god back to earth. Really back to earth would of course work the best, but the "wholly other" idea may have prevented that.

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Old 12-11-2007, 11:41 AM   #115
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In what sphere did Hercules take the earth from Atlas's shoulders? In the heavens, on earth? Was Hercules a human at the time?

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the children share in flesh and blood, he himself likewise also partook of the same, ... Therefore, he had to be made like his brethren in all things..
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Old 12-11-2007, 11:55 AM   #116
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Having checked in to see what’s going on a little sooner than I intended, I can see that any resolve on my part to ignore Jeffrey Gibson in future is simply not going to work.

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Problem is that you haven't demonstrated, let alone offered any real concrete evidence, that scholars have "suppressed" the alleged Platonic background of Hebrews. You've only asserted that they have.

Are you actually saying that Ellingworth, Lane, Williamson, Barrett, Hurst, Attridge, et al., haven't taken notice of, acknowledged, outlined, or put forward in their works as points of discussion, let alone engaged in any meaningful way with, the arguments that proponents of the Platonic background of Hebrews have appealed to in support of their reading?

How would you know what they've done, since as you yourself admit you haven't read them (or read them in full), and since, as your own article shows, the ones you quote you only know through the excerpts of their work that you found in Price?
The most egregious statement is the final one. <edit>...Jeffrey is clearly implying that he has read the article, and is making his statements based on that reading. If he has not read it, he is equally culpable of making a statement that is totally unfounded and deceiving the board. Anyone else who has read it will know without a shadow of a doubt that I have quoted several commentators on Hebrews directly from their own texts, some of them quite extensively, including Attridge (I quote hundreds of Attridge’s words and paraphrase others), Wilson, Ellingworth, Buchanan, and Moffatt (all read from cover to cover), to a lesser extent a few others (see the Bibliography), most of whom I have also read completely. All of them discuss, in varying degrees, the various background concepts to Hebrews, Attridge in particular.

In none of these have I quoted through excerpts of their work that I found in Price (who mentions almost none of them), and that was clear<edit>. There were three or four minor quotes in which I did so, and that, too, was made clear.

Jeffrey also asks for “concrete evidence” that scholars I quote have suppressed the Platonic background of Hebrews in favor of the Jewish. What does he expect me to supply? Signed confessions from them? I assert it on the basis of their own statements vs. what the text actually says, showing how they have twisted that text and read their own preconceptions into it. By that demonstration I legitimately make a judgment about what they have done. And if he read the article, he will also know that I am not saying that scholars like Attridge, Wilson or Williamson have failed to engage with arguments for a Platonic background. I deal with that engagement and demonstrate that it is largely special pleading, often fallacious and not based on a proper analysis of the text.

But my purpose in this post is not to announce that I will continue to engage Jeffrey Gibson. He has shown that he is unwilling or unable to answer any of the objections and exposure of his tactics that I have continually offered, including most recently those surrounding his extensive “excerpts” posting. I note that he has also failed to provide any actual examples of the Greek “days of his flesh” phrase he claimed were present in the non-Christian writings he listed even when reasonably requested to supply them, just as he did in his earlier presentation of the Greek of 5:7. <edit> He is here for one purpose only, to poison the mythicist well (me in particular), and not through legitimate argumentation. No holds are barred. He does not care what anyone thinks of him, or of his actual knowledge or integrity. He hasn’t been able to neutralize me through honest and meaningful argument <edit>.

When the determined bully is given free rein, he will always win, to the detriment of everyone around him. I am proposing that there is ample reason for Jeffrey Gibson to be once again barred from the IIDB, this time permanently. I do not understand why he was allowed to return after his first disbarment for disreputable conduct, something of which he has a long history. The hyena cannot change his spots, and that has been amply demonstrated.

I am not willing to frequent this board as long as Jeffrey Gibson is present. Either he goes or I go, for good.

This is not a matter for a private forum for the moderators. If this posting is censored, transferred or removed, I will send it to every member whose e-mail address I have or can find.

Enough is enough.

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Old 12-11-2007, 12:49 PM   #117
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Originally Posted by gstafleu View Post
The problem here is in the all isn't it?
I agree that the all does not have to be pressed in absurd directions such as hair color, average height, and so forth. But, in a passage where Jesus is said to have taken on the same stuff as humans (flesh) and to have been kin (brother) with the descendants of Abraham, like them in all ways, I do wonder whether we are even permitted to assume that all this took place in a realm not native to descendants of Abraham and flesh-and-blood human beings. At the very least, I think we should demand actual evidence for such a placement, not just the presumption that it might have been so.

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Old 12-11-2007, 02:18 PM   #118
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Of course in that case he actually was a 100% human and could never have resurrected, as humans don't do that. A little problem.
Who said a 100% human couldn't be resurrected? That Pharisees accepted it and it is my understanding that only the Sadducees rejected the notion.

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You find that in the famous phrase "as above, thus below," an idea that seems to pervade mythology.
Yes but I'm not sure how it works with Earl's thesis since he has a sacrifice above but none below. :huh:
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Old 12-11-2007, 02:22 PM   #119
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In what sphere did Hercules take the earth from Atlas's shoulders? In the heavens, on earth? Was Hercules a human at the time?
On earth, and he was always a demigod, being born of a mortal woman and a divine father.
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Old 12-11-2007, 02:23 PM   #120
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Having checked in to see what’s going on a little sooner than I intended, I can see that any resolve on my part to ignore Jeffrey Gibson in future is simply not going to work.

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Originally Posted by JeffreyGibson
Problem is that you haven't demonstrated, let alone offered any real concrete evidence, that scholars have "suppressed" the alleged Platonic background of Hebrews. You've only asserted that they have.

Are you actually saying that Ellingworth, Lane, Williamson, Barrett, Hurst, Attridge, et al., haven't taken notice of, acknowledged, outlined, or put forward in their works as points of discussion, let alone engaged in any meaningful way with, the arguments that proponents of the Platonic background of Hebrews have appealed to in support of their reading?

How would you know what they've done, since as you yourself admit you haven't read them (or read them in full), and since, as your own article shows, the ones you quote you only know through the excerpts of their work that you found in Price?
The most egregious statement is the final one. <edit> Jeffrey is clearly implying that he has read the article, and is making his statements based on that reading. If he has not read it, he is equally culpable of making a statement that is totally unfounded and deceiving the board. Anyone else who has read it will know without a shadow of a doubt that I have quoted several commentators on Hebrews directly from their own texts, some of them quite extensively, including Attridge (I quote hundreds of Attridge’s words and paraphrase others), Wilson, Ellingworth, Buchanan, and Moffatt (all read from cover to cover), to a lesser extent a few others (see the Bibliography), most of whom I have also read completely. All of them discuss, in varying degrees, the various background concepts to Hebrews, Attridge in particular.

In none of these have I quoted through excerpts of their work that I found in Price (who mentions almost none of them), and that was clear <edit>. There were three or four minor quotes in which I did so, and that, too, was made clear.
Not a lie, surely. Just "unfounded hyperbole".

But you did say:

Quote:
"E. F. Scott, as quoted by Price [The Epistle to the Hebrews, p.116-17], declares..."

Price also quotes Graham Hughes [Hebrews and Hermeneutics, p.36] that “in the opening statement the relationship between the two forms of revelation (is between) earlier and later forms.” Indeed it is, and since the earlier form is the speaking of God in the biblical writings, it would follow that the later form is the same, the voice of the Son as recorded in the same medium, only newly interpreted through a new revelation. It goes without saying that if the writer is referring to the voice of the Son in the sacred writings as the means by which God speaks in the present age then he knows of no Jesus of Nazareth speaking on earth.
.

And I note that in the list of people you say you've read "cover to cover" you omit Williamson, as well others that you list in your works cited page such as F. F. Bruce, Donald Guthrie, Graham Hughes, William Manson, Hugh Montefiore, E.F. Scott, C. H. Talbert, and B. F. Westcott . And it's certainly clear that you haven't read Barret or Hurst or Lane.
<edit>

Quote:
I am not saying that scholars like Attridge, Wilson or Williamson have failed to engage with arguments for a Platonic background. I deal with that engagement and demonstrate that it is largely special pleading, often fallacious and not based on a proper analysis of the text.
Well if so, you should definitely let Attridge know. He invites critiques of his work. So now that it's "this week", will you send him your demontration of how and why he is wrong?

Are you willing or not to enter into dialogue with him about this matter? If not, why not?


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