Freethought & Rationalism ArchiveThe archives are read only. |
|
|
Thread Tools | Search this Thread |
02-07-2008, 09:43 AM | #11 | ||
Contributor
Join Date: Mar 2004
Location: Dallas, TX
Posts: 11,525
|
Quote:
|
||
02-07-2008, 10:53 AM | #12 |
Contributor
Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: London UK
Posts: 16,024
|
On time and place (what is that in German?) this story is about God becoming human to save mankind at the time of the emperor gods in the heavenly city.
Are you sure there are not theological reasons for this time line and geography? And looking at Mark by itself without the long ending, what is the point of it again? |
02-07-2008, 11:51 AM | #13 |
Contributor
Join Date: Mar 2004
Location: Dallas, TX
Posts: 11,525
|
Neither do I, nor did I suggest any such thing.
|
02-07-2008, 12:02 PM | #14 |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Nov 2003
Location: Eagle River, Alaska
Posts: 7,816
|
|
02-07-2008, 12:12 PM | #15 | |
Contributor
Join Date: Mar 2004
Location: Dallas, TX
Posts: 11,525
|
Quote:
For example, if Christianity really did begin after the fall of the temple, there would be a theological reason to invent a type of replacement theology and place it in a time period prior to the fall of the temple. This might achieve several goals. First, it could be claimed "the temple was allowed to be destroyed because god's covenant no longer depended on it". Second, putting the story in the early 1st century would place it outside the range of falsifiability, while still maintaining a sense of urgency. Thirdly, the 70 weeks of Daniel may have been seen as a prophecy to be fulfilled in the mid 1st century. By placing the story at that timeframe, it could be claimed that the Messiah had shown up afterall. Fourthly, I don't think we can ignore the Pisces symbolism rampant in early Christianity, combined with the dawn of the age of Pisces happening in the 1st century as well! It's a perfect storm of theological reasons. Regarding the content of the story, it's easy to see how much of it could be constructed from a patchwork of OT passages interpreted according to late 1st/early 2nd century culture. I seem to recall Carrier working on demonstrating this? |
|
02-07-2008, 12:13 PM | #16 |
Contributor
Join Date: Mar 2004
Location: Dallas, TX
Posts: 11,525
|
|
02-07-2008, 12:35 PM | #17 | |||||
Senior Member
Join Date: Mar 2005
Location: Darwin, Australia
Posts: 874
|
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
|
|||||
02-07-2008, 07:20 PM | #18 | |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Nov 2003
Location: Eagle River, Alaska
Posts: 7,816
|
Quote:
Stop playing obtuse. It is boring and wasting space. |
|
02-07-2008, 07:26 PM | #19 | |||||||||||
Veteran Member
Join Date: Nov 2003
Location: Eagle River, Alaska
Posts: 7,816
|
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
|
|||||||||||
02-07-2008, 08:34 PM | #20 | ||||||||||||
Senior Member
Join Date: Mar 2005
Location: Darwin, Australia
Posts: 874
|
Quote:
The examples I cited demonstrate that a setting in historical time and place does not of itself present a prima facie case for presuming the historicity or otherwise of a story. Fiction is just as often set in historical times and places, ancient fiction included. Edited addition: I forgot to address your second sentence here but thanks to spamandham a couple of posts below this has been responded to. Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
I have grounds for rejecting the historicity of the story, which I have explained. On what grounds do you think we should presume some sort of historicity? Because the narrative it is set in a real place in a real time? Quote:
Quote:
(But having said that, I did have some recollection at the same time of an earlier question of yours which probably prompted me to make the point in the first place: Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
|
||||||||||||
Thread Tools | Search this Thread |
|