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Old 08-12-2011, 10:40 AM   #71
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Originally Posted by Evad View Post
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For example, the Bible doesn't really say that God, Jehovah, was nailed to a cross. It says that Jesus Christ, a god, was nailed to the Hebrew torture stake. A simple post.
Which Bible are you reading? Where does it call Jesus Christ a "god?"

And it is quite clear that it was the Romans who crucified Jesus on a Roman instrument of torture.

Why exactly do you want to defend the Bible if you reject the religion that produced it? (This is not a rhetorical question. I am curious as to your point of view.)
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Old 08-12-2011, 10:49 AM   #72
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Not if I am skeptical that the bible is anything but a collection of human stories. I am not skeptical that it exists, and I am not skeptical that different people say it say different things. Same arena for me.
My experience with the skeptical, considering myself to be skeptical as well as having spent most of my life as an "atheist" I feel comfortable in saying that the skeptical aren't so much skeptical of the divine inspiration of the Bible as much as they are politically and or socially motivated unbelievers.

That in and of itself doesn't imply an informed position. You still are most likely skeptical of the religious rather than the ancient collection of human stories. The collection is simply a misunderstood, and in fact, alleged representation.
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Old 08-12-2011, 11:02 AM   #73
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Which Bible are you reading? Where does it call Jesus Christ a "god?"
John 1:1 (KJV) - "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."

1808: "and the word was a god." The New Testament, in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome's New Translation: With a Corrected Text, London.

1864: "and a god was the Word." The Emphatic Diaglott, by Benjamin Wilson, New York and London.

1935: "and the Word was divine." The Bible-An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed, Chicago.

1935: "the Logos was divine." A New Translation of the Bible, by James Moffatt, New York.

1975: "and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word." Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz, Gottingen, Germany.

1978: "and godlike sort was the Logos." Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider, Berlin.

1979: "and a god was the Logos." Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Jurgen Becker, Wurzburg, Germany.

See The Pathway Machine: Is Jesus God?

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And it is quite clear that it was the Romans who crucified Jesus on a Roman instrument of torture.
Is it? Then why didn't the cross, a Roman phallic symbol, not appear in Christian tombs, or writings, until after the fourth century C.E.?

Why would the Jews allow Jesus to die on such a filthy idol but not allow him to remain on it through the passover?

What are the Greek words used for the implement of destruction, and what forms were the Roman instruments used? x, t, and l shaped?

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Why exactly do you want to defend the Bible if you reject the religion that produced it? (This is not a rhetorical question. I am curious as to your point of view.)
If you look just briefly at any organized or popularized religion you see a definite pattern. The transmogrification of the original teachings.
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Old 08-12-2011, 11:16 AM   #74
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See, this is what I don't get. In every other area rational people quite reasonably exercise initial skepticism about extraordinary claims.

You tell me you were abducted by space aliens who took you to Mars and subjected you to anal probes? Pardon me if I'm a bit skeptical.

You tell me a dude walked on water during a storm, turned water to wine, healed blindness, palsy, paralysis, deafness, leprosy and even raised dead people? You tell me this dude was dead and rose from the grave to float off into the sky? And you have the audacity to accuse me of making a "bold and unsubstantiated assumption" when I dare to doubt you?

You have to be kidding me.
I think you may have missed my point. I encourage skepticism of extraordinary claims, but beginning ones criticism of the Bible from an erroneous position from the start isn't going to further your effort.

I think that the skeptical are more skeptical of religious doctrine than the Bible, as such. Another example: How ridiculous for a Bible believer to warn an unwashed heathen they may be on the highway to hell, that the immortal soul of said heathen will burn - from a position skeptical of the hellfire doctrine this is a valid question, but further investigation should reveal that the Bible doesn't teach the immortal soul or hellfire nonsense.

If I were to tell you that the Bible teaches when you die, that's it. You are dead and buried. No torment. No hell. That puts you into an entirely different skeptical arena.
What "erroneous position" are you talking about? The "erroneous position" that the bible may actually be the work of ordinary human beings with no help from any deity? You do understand that this is circular reasoning, I trust.

You made the following claim (emphasis mine):
Quote:
The problem I see with most skeptical effort is that it doesn't give enough attention to the root source. It makes the bold unsubstantiated assumption that the Bible is a collection of writings by a group of ancient people with the intention of perpetuating a myth, when in fact "God coming to earth and getting nailed to a cross" isn't implied in the text at all, but was later added on as the myth was popularized.
Why is it a "bold unsubstantiated assumption" that the bible is a collection of writings by a group of ancient people with the intention of perpetuating a myth? From a rational point of view this is the very first and most obvious assumption one should make. The writings were collected many centuries ago by ancient people and they contain elements of what appear to by myth. Talking snakes, magical fruit trees and angels wielding flaming swords to keep people out of a magic garden just for starters.

Is it a "bold unsubstantiated assumption" that Hesoid's "Works and Days" is a single writing by an ancient person with intention of perpetuating myths (in this case the myths of Promethus bringing fire to humanity and Pandora bringing pain)?

Until there is actual evidence that Promethus did, indeed, suffer for 1000 years as ravens ate his liver daily and Zeus caused it to regrow each night I'm going to remain skeptical and boldly assume "Works and Days" to be largely the stuff of myth.

And until there is actual evidence that Jesus did, indeed, walk on water, cure blindness with spit, turn water into wine and float off into the sky after a death / burial / resurrection I'm going to remain skeptical and boldly assume that collection of ancient literature to be the stuff of myth as well.

Why should I suspend my skepticism just to give the bible a pass? I'm curious.
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Old 08-12-2011, 11:31 AM   #75
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My experience with the skeptical, considering myself to be skeptical as well as having spent most of my life as an "atheist" I feel comfortable in saying that the skeptical aren't so much skeptical of the divine inspiration of the Bible as much as they are politically and or socially motivated unbelievers.
Many here are concerned about the role of religion in politics and society, yes. But there is also a resistance, even antipathy, to spirituality and philosophy generally, let alone religion.

I'm interested in scripture from a spiritual and philosophical POV as opposed to a religious one, and it has generally been my experience here that anything not understood as science is not worth approaching in any systematic manner.

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That in and of itself doesn't imply an informed position. You still are most likely skeptical of the religious rather than the ancient collection of human stories. The collection is simply a misunderstood, and in fact, alleged representation.
If it is not a representation, what is it? I don't see how it can be anything else, except various inks on various materials.
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Old 08-12-2011, 11:37 AM   #76
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Not if I am skeptical that the bible is anything but a collection of human stories. I am not skeptical that it exists, and I am not skeptical that different people say it say different things. Same arena for me.
My experience with the skeptical, considering myself to be skeptical as well as having spent most of my life as an "atheist" I feel comfortable in saying that the skeptical aren't so much skeptical of the divine inspiration of the Bible as much as they are politically and or socially motivated unbelievers.

That in and of itself doesn't imply an informed position. You still are most likely skeptical of the religious rather than the ancient collection of human stories. The collection is simply a misunderstood, and in fact, alleged representation.
I won't presume to speak for others, but the above portion of your post in boldface does not describe this particular skeptic.

I first became skeptical of the Bible at a point in my life when I had absolutely no interest in politics. As far as social motivation goes, every social pressure on me at that point was to believe the Bible. I was raised in a Baptist family, my father was/is a Deacon in the Baptist Church, and I was a prominent member of our Church youth group. I exerted social pressure on others to believe in God, through witnessing.

Your assessment could not miss the mark more completely in my case.
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Old 08-12-2011, 11:41 AM   #77
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^^^ Same goes for me.
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Old 08-12-2011, 11:59 AM   #78
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I can't help wondering what possible social or political motivation there is for atheism. If I were trying to gain political power the single easiest way to do so would be to pander to a major religious affiliation. Being exposed as an infidel is practically a drink from the poison chalice for most politicians.

Socially it's easier to hook up with people if you share a common interest and religion is certainly one such mechanism. Churches are themselves largely social clubs anyway.

The only advantage I get from my skepticism is personal. I can live with myself because I know I'm being honest with the primary person that matters -- me. I'm not pretending to believe in some invisible friend just to fit in with everyone else around me. Not saying that's why anyone else does it, but I have to confess that it was the single biggest reason I was a believer for so many years.
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Old 08-12-2011, 12:41 PM   #79
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Julius Africanus interestingly is the first Patristic source I see to tackle why the genealogies don't match. His explanation is very complex (and forced in my opinion). Nevertheless he does bring up an interesting point while reporting what ancient detractors of the two genealogies pointed out. The purpose of the two genealogies apparently was to show that Jesus was both a 'son of David' and of priestly descent. Yet the difficult these critics pointed out was that - in the early period certainly - the Levites zealously guarded their marriages. We still see this from documents at Qumran.

It would be difficult to imagine an individual who was both 'of Levi' and 'of Judah' as the ancestors of Jesus are purported to have been.

Just an observation.
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Old 08-12-2011, 12:49 PM   #80
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As I indicated to Little Dot the only way one can claim the rightness of both genealogies of Jesus is to make a mockery of them, by rendering them meaningless.

Before I look at the process, let's look at the footnotes Evad gives. Each of them show Evad's willingness to do eisegesis, to read things into the text rather than get the information they contain.

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Originally Posted by Evad View Post
Footnote # 1. Zerubbabel evidently was the natural son of Pedaiah and the legal son of Shealtiel by brother-in-law marriage; or he was brought up by Shealtiel after his father Pedaiahs death and became legally recognized as the son of Shealtiel (1 Chronicles 3:17-19 / Ezra 3:2 / Luke 3:27).
There is nothing evident about this. Comments about mothes in law and legally recognized are simply conjecture not derived from biblical sources. Both Mt and Lk follow the Ezra, Nehemiah and Haggai showing no knowledge of or interest in 1 Chr 3:17.

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Originally Posted by Evad View Post
Footnote # 2. The lines meet in Shealtiel and Zerubbabel, afterward diverging. This divergence could have been through two different descendants of Zerubbabel, or Rhesa or Abiud could have been a son-in-law.
"Could have been" means "I want to believe". It is not evidence of any kind, except what one wants to believe.

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Footnote # 3. At Nathan, Luke begins reckoning the genealogy through Jesus maternal line, while Matthew continues with the paternal line.
The conclusion is assumed, not demonstrated.

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Originally Posted by Evad View Post
Footnote #4. Shealtiel the son of Jeconiah possibly was the son-in-law of Neri. (1 Chronicles 3:17 / Luke 3:27).
"Possibly" means "I want to believe".

The footnotes display the approach of Evad's analysis, ie not interested in what the evidence actually indicates, but in getting to the conclusions desired.

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Jesus was actually the Son of God and the natural heir to the Kingdom by miraculous birth through the virgin girl Mary, of David's line, and Jesus was also the legal heir in the male line of descent from David and Solomon through his adoptive father Joseph. (Luke 1:32, 35 / Romans 1:1-4)
Evad has not read the discussion in this thread about adoption.

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Originally Posted by Evad View Post
The difference in nearly all the names in Luke's genealogy of Jesus as compared with Matthew's is quickly resolved in the fact that Luke traced the line through David's son Nathan, instead of Solomon as did Matthew.
Quickly resolved? By spending an extremely long post constructing a web of conjecture.

We know that blood lineage does not permit two separate lines to end up at the same descendant. It is impossible. We then must look for alternatives to explain away the impossible.

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Originally Posted by Evad View Post
Luke follows the ancestry of Mary which shows Jesus' natural descent from David.
It is notable that the Lucan genealogy says nothing about Mary in the lineage. All we have is that "Jesus... was the son (supposedly) of Joseph, of Heli...." The point here is plain: the lineage to the ancestors goes through Joseph. Mary is irrelevant.

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Originally Posted by Evad View Post
Matthew shows Jesus' legal right to the throne of David by descent from Solomon through Joseph, who was legally Jesus' father. Both signify that Joseph wasn't Jesus' actual father, only his adoptive father and giving him legal right.
Actually both nullify the significance of the bloodline when they cut Jesus from it through grammatical gymnastics. Both lines are to Joseph and suddenly he is not the real father.

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Originally Posted by Evad View Post
Matthew departs from his style when he comes to Jesus, saying: "Jacob became father to Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom Jesus was born, who is called Christ." (Matthew 1:16) He doesn't say that 'Joseph became father to Jesus' but that he was "the husband of Mary, of whom Jesus was born." Luke says that Jesus was actually the Son of God by Mary (Luke 1:32-35) that "Jesus . . . being the son, as the opinion was, of Joseph, son of Heli." Luke 3:23.
The theological claims here do not change the genealogies or hook Mary into one. Mary's cousin is Elizabeth, who was a descendant of Aaron (Lk 1:5), making Mary not of Judah but of Levi.

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Originally Posted by Evad View Post
Frederic Louis Godet wrote: "This study of the text in detail leads us in this way to admit 1. That the genealogical register of Luke is that of Heli, the grandfather of Jesus; 2. That, this affiliation of Jesus by Heli being expressly opposed to His affiliation by Joseph, the document which he has preserved for us can be nothing else in his view than the genealogy of Jesus through Mary. But why does not Luke name Mary, and why pass immediately from Jesus to His grandfather? Ancient sentiment did not comport with the mention of the mother as the genealogical link. Among the Greeks a man was the son of his father, not of his mother; and among the Jews the adage was: 'Genus matris non vocatur genus ( "The descendant of the mother is not called (her) descendant")' ('Baba bathra,' 110, a)." Commentary on Luke, 1981, p. 129.
Somebody else's conjecture quoted here is merely secondhand conjecture.

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Originally Posted by Evad View Post
Both genealogies show descent from David - through Solomon and through Nathan. (Matthew 1:6 / Luke 3:31)
One should gasp here, but...

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Originally Posted by Evad View Post
They come together again in two persons; Shealtiel and Zerubbabel. Shealtiel was the son of Jeconiah, perhaps by marriage to the daughter of Neri - he was then the "son of Neri." or Neri's son-in-law. It is also possible that Neri had no sons, so that Shealtiel was counted as his "son." ( Compare Matthew 1:12 / Luke 3:27 / 1 Chronicles 3:17-19)
"[P]erhaps" indicates more pure conjecture.

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Originally Posted by Evad View Post
So Acts 2:30; 13:23 / Romans 1:3 / 2 Timothy 2:8 / Revelation 22:16 all of which are used in support of Joseph being the father of Joseph and the seed of David are accurate in that Joseph was through David's line and legal father to Jesus.

Hebrews 2:16 which refers to Jesus as seed of Abraham refers to the covenant God had with Abraham, which was for a "seed" which many nations would bless themselves. (Genesis 22:17-18 / Galatians 3:8) The Jews were all of the seed of Abraham (John 8:39 / Matthew 3:9) but they rejected it when they rejected the Messiah. Even in Genesis 22:17-18 it mentions Abraham's seed as being a blessing to all the nations. A spiritual seed that would surpass the fleshly inheritance of the people of Israel.
There is nothing of substance here to deal with the problems other than to render both genealogies worthless because Evad wants to deal with "spiritual seed" not the genealogies and their bloodlines.

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Matthew 1:8 and Luke 1:31-35 is given as a contradiction but Mary was from the Davidic line and Joseph was Jesus' legal father, so there is no contradiction.
That Mary is Davidic is false given that she is Aaronid.

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Originally Posted by Evad View Post
At Matthew 22:45 and Mark 12:35-37 Jesus quotes David in Psalm 110. Jesus never denied that he was a descendant of David, he only points out something the Pharisees were not aware of. Jesus existed in heaven as God's first born only begotten son before the earth was made and before Abraham. (John 1:1 / 8:58)
Red herring.

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Originally Posted by Evad View Post
...From Solomon to Zerubbabel the Chronicles record and Matthew agree though Matthew omits some names. One needs to address these as well as the differences in Luke's account from David to Jesus.

Genealogy involved private family records in addition to the public records of genealogies which chroniclers, such as Ezra, for example, had access to when they compiled their lists. To the registers that existed in the first century up until 70 C.E. the matter of the descent of the Messiah from Abraham through David was very important.
One doesn't know the genealogy of the genealogies. The above is conjecture.

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Matthew and Luke no doubt consulted these genealogical tables.
No doubt we don't know what was consulted.

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Originally Posted by Evad View Post
The question is why does Matthew leave out some names that are contained in the listing of other chroniclers? For one thing it is not necessary to name every link in the line of descent. Ezra, for example, in proving his priestly lineage, at Ezra 7:1-5, left out several names that were listed at 1 Chronicles 6:1-15. Matthew seems to have copied from the public register - leaving out some names not needed to prove the descent of Jesus from Abraham and David. Access of the Hebrew Scriptures would have likely been used as well. (Ruth 4:12, 18-22 and Matthew 1:3-6)
Note the "seems". Desire, not content here.

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Originally Posted by Evad View Post
Both the lists made by Matthew and Luke would have been publicly recognized by the Jews of that time as authentic. The Pharisees as well as the Sadducees - bitter enemies of Christianity didn't challenge these genealogies. They could have done so up until 70 C.E. when the records were destroyed in the destruction of Jerusalem.
"[W]ould have been" here is a synonym for "were, it is is my belief".

So far no substance.

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Problems in Matthew's Genealogy?
...Where Matthew indicates that Zerubbabel is the son of Shealtiel (Matthew 1:12) it coincides with other references (Ezra 3:2 / Nehemiah 12:1 / Hagai 1:14 / Luke 3:27) but at 1 Chronicles 3:19 Zerubbabel is listed as the son of Pedaiah. This is because Zarubbabel was the natural son of Pedaiah and the legal son of Shealtiel by brother-in-law marriage or possibly after Zerubbabel's father Pedaiah died Zerubbabel was brought up by Shealtiel as his son and so legally recognized as the son of Shealtiel.
This is a conjectured resolution of a conflict of indications in the Hebrew bible. Besides the conflict there is no evidence here.

None of the rest is of any direct use regarding an attempt to explain what is happening in the two divergent genealogies in Mt & Lk. The result of the above is a display of the willingness of Evad to explain the divergence rather than read them for what they say.

As I said, Little Dot, before one can dismiss blood lineage with half-baked claims of adoption, one needs to show some examples where adoption is clearly the case before one can posit adoption as a means of smoothing difficulties in what appears to be a blood lineage.

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Problems With Lukes Genealogy?....
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