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01-06-2013, 01:21 PM | #191 | |
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I don't know why "Paul" does not use the word μαθητής, disciple, but one reason may be, because "Paul" has admitted that he never met Jesus. If he never met him, how can he attest to Jesus' disciples? I have read your submissions, am I now qualified to cite your disciples? Obviously not. I don't know why Justin doesn't mention "Paul", I have long assumed that it is because the epistles attibuted to "Paul" were created long after Justin's extant works had been composed, but I acknowledge that as facile. I continue to struggle with understanding your logic in claiming that "Paul" must have written before Justin Martyr, because the latter author fails to mention μαθητής in Dialogue with Trypho, part I. I will enjoy, if you have a moment to spare, reading your reply to my rejoinder, commenting in an earlier post, that we do not (or, at least, I do not) claim an earlier date for composition of texts by Plutarch, than Aristarchus, in view of the former's omission of the word heliocentrism. |
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01-06-2013, 01:25 PM | #192 | ||
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I APPEAL to the actual evidence from antiquity--the written statements in the Canon, including Acts of the Apostles. Now, please tell us what corroborative storyline in the NT that you used for your Pauline Celestial Never on Earth Jesus?? It was NOT gMark, gMatthew, gLuke, gJohn, Acts, the Non-Pauline Epistles and Revelation. 1. The Pauline writer claimed Jesus was the Son of God made of a woman. See Galatians 4.4. 2. The Pauline writer claimed Jesus BROKE BREAD on the night he was Delivered up and talked about his impending death. See 1 Cor.11.23-25 You have ZERO--NIL--NOTHING--NO corroborative source in the NT Canon that the Pauline were composed in the 1st century and none for your Pauline Celestial Never on Earth Jesus. You already have NO "Legs". In fact, your argument has NO "body" Effectively, your argument has no support and nothing that needs support from the NT. |
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01-06-2013, 01:58 PM | #193 |
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In any event there would not be any reason for Acts to mention letters since if the epistles are (as can be argued) just composites, and no Paul ever wrote them, the author of Acts would have had no reason to mention them in his novel of Peter/Saul/Paul.
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01-06-2013, 02:47 PM | #194 |
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Disciples are disciplines that Paul elaborated on to keep his Christ cosmic.
Preaching is done only by those who are motivated by a scorpion and Paul made it known that he was not one of those. Remember here that the shepherds never entered the stable but only "looked in and understood" and these are those insights to be recalled as disciples, that their sheep may be part of the catch, but shepherds they no longer where as 'tied down in heaven' and so in, or inside the hierarchy of knowledge itself. This has to be true because the dove landed to stay and no more holy spirit floating around. I'll say again here that the holy trinity only is part of the land while in oblivion, or else what would heaven be all about? And lets understand well that we are exploring the netherworld here so that we will know where we are when we get there and find that water, that heretofore was set aside to give humans dry land to walk on now must become ours right back to Gen.1:9, and there now find it solid as rock. I think that Paul's insight that is expressed in his letters and whatever he wrote, was his encounter with the 'right and wrong' that he saw, and so are his discipleship-in-motion for us to absorb. |
01-06-2013, 05:28 PM | #195 | ||
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So why would you expect the Justin writer to mention the Paul writer or writings, had he existed or been prior to Justin? What reasonable expectation (as you see it) grounds your argument from silence? |
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01-06-2013, 06:04 PM | #196 | |||
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If those people had actually been disciples, you'd think there would be some mention of it somewhere in the Epistles, even in passing - especially if they were late inventions. After all, it's quite a difference if you have a god who's supposed to have walked on Earth - merely visionary experience of the god would be trumped by actual discipleship. But Paul, in the Epistles, never seems to find himself in that kind of opposition. In fact, the only opposition he has with these people is on matters of practice and behaviour (the Law); there's no difference even hinted at in terms of "how-the-deity-is-known". In fact, Paul puts the manner in which "how-the-deity-is-known" on exactly the same footing as the people who "knew" about the deity before him: it's Scripture and vision ("appearance", ophthe, self-revelation of the Divine from Heaven). Just to give some more context, here's a passage that's constantly at the back of my mind when I argue. A text that I think hugely important and revealing as to the tug of war that was going on between proto-orthodoxy and the Pauline lineage. It's from the Kerygmata Petrou reckoned to be the circa 200CE-ish source of the Pseudo-Clementines, reconstructed from them:- Quote:
Down the rabbit hole we go ... |
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01-06-2013, 07:16 PM | #197 | ||
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You already know that you have ZERO corroboration for 1st century Pauline writings in the NT Canon and must argue from Silence. You know that there are actual RECOVERED DATED Pauline writings. P 46, the Pauline letters, are Dated between the mid 2nd-3rd century which is PRECISELY compatible with the writings of the author of Acts, Justin Martyr and Aristides. I expected that NO Pauline writings would be found and dated to the 1st century and that is EXACTLY what has happened. My expectations have been realized. I argue WITH actual dated manuscripts--the Pauline writings are 2nd century or later manuscripts and are historically bogus. See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of...stament_papyri |
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01-06-2013, 07:46 PM | #198 | |
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Or perhaps you have an argument for why you think the dated manuscripts are the earliest copies of Pauline writings that have ever existed ... ? (I mean, of course, one that isn't circular, depending on a prior expectation that Justin would have mentioned Paul or his letters had they existed at the time - which prior expectation is based on ... what? Remind me again?) |
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01-06-2013, 08:10 PM | #199 |
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GuruGeorge, I assume you have already considered the possibility that there is no evidence that such epistles were ever actually written or received by anyone, or that any communities actually existed.
Am I correct that you have already considered that the epistles were composite texts? |
01-06-2013, 09:29 PM | #200 | ||||||||
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You have NOTHING--You have no corroborative source in the NT and is continually making noise about your Presumed and Imagined early Pauline Epistles. Your presumed imagination will NOT be realized because as the evidence suggest there was no Pauline letters before c 150 CE. Quote:
There is still 25-75 YEARS after Justin Martyr for other earlier copies of the Pauline letters to be composed AFTER 150 CE, and AFTER the time of Justin's writings. See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Papyrus_46 Quote:
"First Apology" XXXIX Quote:
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First Apology LXVII Quote:
The Pauline writings are historically bogus and were composed in the 2nd century or later. |
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