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Old 11-11-2006, 09:19 PM   #21
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Paul viewed Christ as a metaphor representing allegoric secrets and he was basically explaining that these secrets had been expressed in different forms prior to the interpretation embraced by Paul.
What do you make of Gal 4:4 then, where Paul refers to the Son being "born of a woman, born under the law"?

I'm starting to wonder if even Paul knew what he believed about Christ.
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Old 11-12-2006, 10:38 AM   #22
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What do you make of Gal 4:4 then, where Paul refers to the Son being "born of a woman, born under the law"?

Virtually everything Paul says is in metaphor and "woman" and "law" are represent "cover". The top layer of allegory is associated with "life" and women are the givers of life. Paul in his allegoric interpretations destroyed the "law" and brought forth "dead" things from the underworld, but these dead things were given new feminine covers provided by "anointing" and "baptism" (or "frankincense" and "myrrh"). Since "fathers" are often associated with "history" (or lifeless "rock"), Christ's birth to a "virgin" meant that he was entirely non-historical.
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Old 11-12-2006, 12:31 PM   #23
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When do they "typically" happen?

It seems to me that they have the potential to occur whenever an individual prone to such experiences was thinking about the subject regardless of the location.
I would be careful here with causation: the "conversion" experience does not happen as a consequence of "thinking about the [conversion] subject". The theme may actually arrive later, when a subject is already showing signs of being non-compos. It is quite common as a matter of fact that a religious epiphany happens while people get worked up about something (or someone) else.

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Presumably, Paul had been feeling guilty, subconsciously or even consciously, about persecuting Christians and it was his growing unease with his activities that ultimately resulted in his dramatic experience.
The Acts story suggests "persecution" as the primary cognitive content of Paul's Christ experience. But given Paul's letters, this is extremely unlikely. 2 Cor 12 (which I read as Paul's description of his initial episode of manic excitement) was primarily euphoric and only later he experiences "skolops th sarki" (7), which articulates the depressive or persecutory side of the syndrome. Importantly, he ascribes the persecution to Satan, not Jesus ! That the initial "discovery" of the Son in himself was an euphoric affair is confirmed by Gal 1:15-16.

The genuine Paulines also mostly deny that their writer was feeling guilty about persecuting the Church. In fact the highly suspect 1 Cor 15:3-11 passage imputing guilt to Paul on account of his persecution of the Jesus assemblies is at loggerheads with everything else Paul says on the subject. In Gal 1, Paul proudly owns up to his former violent career in supressing the Jesus nonsense, ascribing it to his advanced education in Judaism and zeal for the tradition of his ancestors. As this passage immediately precedes the "euphoric" revelation of Christ to Paul, it seems as though Paul takes it as a confirmation of a special status he has with God. Philippians 3:6 (as to zeal a persecutor of the church, as to righteousness under the law blameless) ratifies his former anti-Nazarene stance as a mark of moral fibre.

Jiri
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Old 11-12-2006, 01:53 PM   #24
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I would be careful here with causation: the "conversion" experience does not happen as a consequence of "thinking about the [conversion] subject".
Never (ie "does not happen")? Do you have research to support this level of certainty? It seems to me to be counterintuitive to claim that all conversion experiences occur when an individual is thinking about something other than their beliefs.

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The theme may actually arrive later, when a subject is already showing signs of being non-compos. It is quite common as a matter of fact that a religious epiphany happens while people get worked up about something (or someone) else.
You've gone from "does not happen" to "may arrive later" and "quite common". Which is it?
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Old 11-12-2006, 08:01 PM   #25
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Virtually everything Paul says is in metaphor and "woman" and "law" are represent "cover". The top layer of allegory is associated with "life" and women are the givers of life. Paul in his allegoric interpretations destroyed the "law" and brought forth "dead" things from the underworld, but these dead things were given new feminine covers provided by "anointing" and "baptism" (or "frankincense" and "myrrh"). Since "fathers" are often associated with "history" (or lifeless "rock"), Christ's birth to a "virgin" meant that he was entirely non-historical.
Perhaps you would be interested in giving your perspective, and the reasons you hold it, in this thread. http://www.iidb.org/vbb/showthread.php?t=183659 , where I have not even been able to get people to admit the mere possibility that an interpretation such as this may be what Paul meant.
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Old 11-16-2006, 01:46 PM   #26
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Hi Gamera,

Plato never insists that he is right and his interocutors are wrong. At least in the multiple times I've read every dialogue of his, I have never found this to be the case.

We need to separate out the neo-Platonic views of Platonism, developed in 3rd century C.E. and later, from Plato's actual views. We should remember that for eight hundred years, the leaders of the Academy, the men who knew Plato's works best, were all skeptics who refused the idea that any knowledge was certain.

While Plato does endorse and support the existence of an ideal realm in certain dialogues, he seems to oppose this belief in other ones. He recognizes frequently that he is unable to grasp eternal truths, but he suggests that the truth must be something like the entertaining analogies/myths he presents. He always presents his analogies/myths as stories that may or may not be true. The reader is given wide latitude to believe or disbelieve.

Plato does endorse the dialectical method (one on one structured interogation) as the best means of getting at the truth, but he does not seem to endorse any particular truth.

Even when he constructs his ideal "Republic," he tells us that it can only be short-lived and will be overthrown.

I really cannot imagine any writers with more opposite personalities then Plato and Paul.

Warmly,

Philosopher Jay
I have to disagree Jay. I think you've been "taken in" by Platos fictive frame. I don't think most scholars believe anymore that the dialogs are in any sense transcriptions of anything Socrates said, but rather tendentious arguments leading toward a predetermined conclusion using the trope of a dialog. It's all staged to score points for Plato's philosophical claims.

And those claims are undeniably that there is a world of Forms that are the basis of the our world of phenomena. I don't see how you can deny that.

Heidegger's 1931-32 lecture course on The Essence of Truth makes a convincing case that Plato is engaged in the earliest western attempts to work through "truth" as the fundamental experience of the unhiddenness of Being, and that Plato's ontology flows from there.

In any case, I think Plato and Paul have a lot in common -- they are both driven to reinterpret reality according to a preconceived "revelation" they have about the "truth." And nothing (no empirical data) can stand in their way.
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